Home Blog Page 38

Software Engineering MCQ

Software Engineering MCQ
Software Engineering MCQ

Software Engineering MCQ

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 2: Stamflay.com

Software Engineering Mcqs:
Efficiency in a software product does not include ____________________?
A. responsiveness
B. licensing
C. memory utilization
D. processing time
Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below ?
A. Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
B. Refusing to undertake a project
C. Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
D. All of the mentioned
In terms of Issues related to professional responsibility____________________?
A. Confidentiality
B. Intellectual property rights
C. Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
D. Managing Client Relationships
Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should:
A. not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
B. not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
C. be dependent on their colleagues.”
D. maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
A. PUBLIC
B. PROFESSION
C. PRODUCT
D. ENVIRONMENT
What are attributes of good software ?
A. Software maintainability
B. Software functionality
C. Software development
D. Software maintainability & functionality
Which of these is true ?
A. Generic products and customized products are types of software products
B. Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
C. Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
D. All of the mentioned
What is a Software ____________________ ?
A. Software is set of programs
B. Software is documentation and configuration of data
C. Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
D. None of the mentioned
Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the term misuse refers to ___________________?
A. Unauthorized access to computer material
B. Unauthorized modification of computer material
C. Dissemination of viruses or other malware
D. All of the mentioned
Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
A. The product should be easy to use
B. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible
C. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
D. It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
A. Lack of adequate training in software engineering
B. Lack of software ethics and understanding
C. Management issues in the company
D. All of the mentioned
The reason for software bugs and failures is due to _____________________?
A. Software companies
B. Software Developers
C. Both Software companies and Developers
D. All of the mentioned
Which of these does not account for software failure ?
A. Increasing Demand
B. Low expectation
C. Increasing Supply
D. Less reliable and expensive
Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
A. Software dependence
B. Software development
C. Software validation
D. Software specification
Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole ?
A. Heterogeneity
B. Flexibility
C. Business and social change
D. Security
Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change ?
A. Build & Fix Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D. Waterfall Model
Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ______________ LOC (Line of Code)?
A. 100-200
B. 200-400
C. 400-1000
D. above 1000
Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC ?
A. Waterfall Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
What is the major drawback of using RAD Model ?
A. Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
B. Increases reusability of components
C. Encourages customer/client feedback
D. Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model ?
A. Quick Design
B. Coding
C. Prototype Refinement
D. Engineer Product
RAD Model has__________________?
A. 2 phases
B. 3 phase
C. 5 phases
D. 6 phases
SDLC stands for_____________________?
A. Software Development Life Cycle
B. System Development Life cycle
C. Software Design Life Cycle
D. System Design Life Cycle
The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
A. Software processes
B. Software Security
C. Software reuse
D. Software Validation
The spiral model was originally proposed by____________________?
A. IBM
B. Barry Boehm
C. Pressman
D. Royce
What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model ?
A. Customer can respond to each increment
B. Easier to test and debug
C. It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
D. Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model ?
A. It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
B. It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
C. It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
D. It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support
How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model ?
A. Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
B. Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
C. Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
D. All of the mentioned
Choose an internal software quality from given below________________________?
A. scalability
B. usability
C. reusability
D. reliability
The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does static perspective do ?
A. It shows the process activities that are enacted
B. It suggests good practices to be used during the process
C. It shows the phases of the model over time
D. All of the mentioned
Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
A. Transition
B. Elaboration
C. Construction
D. Inception
Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ?
A. Software Verification
B. Software Validation
C. Software design and implementation
D. Software evolution
The longer a fault exists in software__________________?
A. the more tedious its removal becomes
B. the more costly it is to detect and correct
C. the less likely it is to be properly corrected
D. All of the mentioned
Selection of a model is based on_____________________?
A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects ?
A. Spiral
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model
Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
A. Waterfall & Spiral
B. RAD & Spiral
C. RAD & Waterfall
D. RAD & Prototyping
A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach would they prefer ?
A. RAD
B. Iterative Enhancement
C. Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
D. Spiral
If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select ?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. RAD
D. Incremental
Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below_________________?
A. FORTRAN
B. COBOL
C. Unix shell
D. C++
4GL is an example of ________________ processing?
A. White Box
B. Black Box
C. Functional
D. Both Black Box & Functional
The 4GT Model is a package of _________________?
A. CASE Tools
B. Software tools
C. Software Programs
D. None of the mentioned
Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT. i. Design strategy ii. Transformation into product iii. Implementation iv. Requirement gathering ?
A. 1, 4, 3, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 2
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 3, 4, 2
Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for managing structured data?
A. SQL
B. PROLOG
C. C
D. JAVA
Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
A. Waterfall & RAD
B. Prototyping & Spiral
C. Prototyping & RAD
D. Waterfall & Spiral
RUP stands for______________ created by a division of ______________?
A. Rational Unified Program, IBM
B. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
C. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
D. Rational Unified Process, IBM
The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model
The spiral model has two dimensions namely _______________ and _______________?
A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular
Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model?
A. Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
B. High amount of risk analysis
C. Strong approval and documentation control
D. Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for ?
A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model
D. Incremental Model
Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating _________________?
A. on Lisp machine
B. on report generators
C. from database query languages
D. from GUI creators
What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products, applications or programs ?
A. Improved productivity of software engineers
B. Reduction in software development time
C. 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems
D. None of the mentioned
Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development________________?
A. Individuals and interactions
B. Working software
C. Customer collaboration
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
A. Spiral Model
B. Waterfall Model
C. Rad Model
D. 4GT Model
Agile Software Development is based on_________________?
A. Incremental Development
B. Iterative Development
C. Linear Development
D. Both Incremental and Iterative Development
How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
A. Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
B. Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
C. Iteration occurs within activities
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process ?
A. Uses incremental product delivery strategy
B. Only essential work products are produced
C. Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
D. All of the mentioned
Four types of change are encountered during the support phase . Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category ?
A. Translation
B. Correction
C. Adaptation
D. Prevention
Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report ?
A. Communication
B. Planning
C. Modeling & Construction
D. Deployment
Purpose of process is to deliver software ___________________?
A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality
Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk ?
A. Reusability management
B. Risk management
C. Measurement
D. User Reviews
The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the_____________ phase which focuses on what, the______________ phase which focuses on how and the_____________ phase which focuses on change ? i. support ii. development iii. definition
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 2, 1
D. 3, 1, 2
Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product ?
A. keypad control of a security system
B. pattern recognition game playing
C. digital function of dashboard display in a car
D. none of the mentioned
Which one of the following is not a software process quality ?
A. Productivity
B. Portability
C. Timeliness
D. Visibility
_______________ & ________________ are two kinds of software products ?
A. CAD, CAM
B. Firmware, Embedded
C. Generic, Customised
D. None of the mentioned
Purpose of process is to deliver software________________?
A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality
Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
A. analysis, design, coding, testing
B. planning, analysis, design, coding
C. planning, design, coding, testing
D. planning, analysis, coding, testing
Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It may vary from Customer to Customer
D. None of the mentioned
In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented ____________________?
A. True
B. False
Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions may occur ?
A. True
B. False
User requirements are expressed as _______________ in Extreme Programming?
A. implementation tasks
B. functionalities
C. scenarios
D. none of the mentioned
Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
A. analysis, design, coding
B. requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
C. speculation, collaboration, learning
D. all of the mentioned
How many phases are there in Scrum ?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development ?
A. True
B. False
Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
A. Entry level personnel
B. Middle level stakeholder
C. Managers
D. Users of the software
The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
A. SDD
B. SRS
C. DDD
D. SRD
QFD stands for ________________?
A. quality function design
B. quality function development
C. quality function deployment
D. none of the mentioned
Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one?
A. True
B. False
A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play?
A. True
B. False
Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ?
A. elicitation
B. design
C. analysis
D. documentation
How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions ?
A. last for about 2-3 hours
B. last for about 2-3 days
C. cover the technology used for the development
D. all of the mentioned
FAST stands for___________________?
A. Functional Application Specification Technique
B. Fast Application Specification Technique
C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique
D. None of the mentioned
Select the developer-specific requirement ?
A. Portability
B. Maintainability
C. Availability
D. Both Portability and Maintainability
How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
A. It involves successive steps
B. It involves just one task
C. The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
D. It has a shorter development time
QFD works best if it has management commitment?
A. True
B. False
To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ?
A. C – Customer
B. A – Actor
C. T – Transformation
D. E – ER Model
Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ?
A. Ease of software installation
B. Overall operational correctness and reliability
C. Specific system functions
D. Quality graphical display
Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ?
A. Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
B. Prototyping
C. Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
D. Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique ?
A. It incorporates human element into design
B. SSM is in its infant stage
C. SSM is suitable for new systems
D. Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM
Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
A. System Analyst
B. Scribe
C. Facilitator
D. Manager
How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. All of the mentioned
Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wide band Delphi Technique ?
i. Conduct a group discussion
ii. Conduct another group discussion
iii. Present experts with a problem
iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
A. i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
B. iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
C. i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
D. iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?
A. Developer
B. User
C. Non-Functional
D. Physical
Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project ?
A. True
B. False
C. Depends upon the size of project
D. None of the mentioned
How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
A. Use Cases
B. Entity Relationship Diagram
C. State Transition Diagram
D. Activity Diagram
What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
A. Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
B. Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
C. Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
D. Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system?
A. True
B. False
“Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
A. Functional
B. Non-Functional
C. Known Requirement
D. None of the mentioned
Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Robustness
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements ?
A. It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
B. It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized
C. The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
D. None of the mentioned
Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
A. Availability
B. Testability
C. Usability
D. Flexibility
Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner ?
i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
A. iii, i, ii, iv
B. iii, iv, ii, i
C. iii, ii, iv, i
D. ii, iii, iv, i
What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
A. Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
B. Use Cases (by Jacobson)
C. Fusion (by Coleman)
D. Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)
What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
A. Identifying Stakeholder
B. Listing out Requirements
C. Requirements Gathering
D. All of the mentioned
What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD) ?
A. Known, Unknown, Undreamed
B. User, Developer
C. Functional, Non-Functional
D. Normal, Expected, Exciting
What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Ternary
D. Both Primary and Secondary
What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
A. JAD
B. Traceability
C. FAST
D. Both JAD and Traceability
Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
A. Verifiable
B. Ambiguous
C. Complete
D. Traceable
The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if____________________?
A. its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
B. every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
C. every requirement stated therein is verifiable
D. no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
The SRS document is also known as ________________ specification ?
A. black-box
B. white-box
C. grey-box
D. none of the mentioned
Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
A. Consistent
B. Verifiable
C. Non-verifiable
D. Correct
Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
A. Consistent
B. Non-Verifiable
C. Correct
D. Ambiguous
Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard?
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices

v. Specific Requirements
A. iii, i, ii,v, iv
B. iii, ii, i, v, iv
C. ii, i, v, iv, iii
D. iii, i, ii
Which of the following is included in SRS ?
A. Cost
B. Design Constraints
C. Staffing
D. Delivery Schedule
Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
A. Consistent
B. Non-verifiable
C. Correct
D. Ambiguous
Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
A. Only i is true
B. Both ii and iii are true
C. All are true
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
A. Correct
B. Complete
C. Consistent
D. Modifiable
Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process_________________?
A. True
B. False
Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
A. Problem of scope
B. Problem of understanding
C. Problem of volatility
D. All of the mentioned
How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
A. True
B. False
What is the major drawback of CORE ?
A. Requirements are comprehensive
B. NFRs are not given enough importance
C. Role of analyst is passive
D. All of the mentioned
How is CORE different from IBIS ?
A. Iterative in nature
B. Redundancies are removed
C. It is simple and an easier method to use
D. Consistency problems are addressed in CORE
How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
A. Poor change management
B. Poor requirements management
C. Poor quality control
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
A. Investigation
B. Design
C. Construction and Test
D. All of the mentioned
Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project ?
A. True
B. False
What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations________________________?
A. Automatic Link Detection
B. Documentation Support
C. Graphical Representation
D. Automatic Link Creation and Change
Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
A. RTM
B. DOORS
C. Rational Suite
D. RDD 100
Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management?
A. True
B. False
Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes___________________?
A. to the environment
B. in technology
C. in customer’s expectations
D. in all of the mentioned.
Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
A. User and Developer
B. Functional and Non-functional
C. Enduring and Volatile
D. All of the mentioned
Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development ?
A. True
B. False

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here ?
A. Enduring
B. Volatile
C. Both Enduring & Volatile
D. All of the mentioned
What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?
A. Context Diagrams
B. DFDs
C. ER model
D. UML diagrams
IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE ?
A. True
B. False
Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ?
A. FODA
B. CORE
C. IBIS
D. Prototyping
Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ?
A. User
B. Tester
C. Scribe
D. Sponsor
Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS) ?
A. Idea -> Question -> Argument
B. Question -> Idea -> Argument
C. Issue -> Position -> Justification
D. Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification
______________ and ______________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE) ?
A. Functional, Non-Functional
B. User, Developer
C. Known, Unknown
D. All of the mentioned
__________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics ?
A. Realization
B. Aggregation
C. Generalization
D. dependency
The UML supports event-based modeling using _______________ diagrams?
A. Deployment
B. Collaboration
C. State chart
D. All of the mentioned
Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
A. Behavioral Model
B. Context Model
C. Data Model
D. Structural Model
Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling.How many different notations does it have ?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D. Nine
Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture ?
A. Structural perspective
B. Behavioral perspective
C. External perspective
D. All of the mentioned
Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
A. Context Model
B. Behavioral Model
C. Data Model
D. Object Model
Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
A. Activity
B. Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
C. State Chart
D. Component
Read More Details about this Mcq
________________ & ________________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling?
A. Use Case, Sequence
B. Class, Object
C. Activity, State Chart
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
A. All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
B. The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
C. Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
D. All of the mentioned
One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture?
A. True
B. False
________________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used ?
A. Controller
B. Entity
C. Boundary
D. Business
A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well _________________?
A. True
B. False
Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code ?
A. True
B. False
Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data ?
A. True
B. False
Software evolution does not comprises ?
A. Development activities
B. Negotiating with client
C. Maintenance activities
D. Re-engineering activities
Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of ____________________?
A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Reengineering
D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development ?
A. Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
B. Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
C. It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
D. Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a more structured approach
The two dimensions of spiral model are ______________________?
A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular
A sociotechnical system is a system that includes___________________?
A. people
B. software
C. hardware
D. all of the mentioned
Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?
A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Reengineering
D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Spiral model was developed by ___________________?
A. Victor Bisili
B. Berry Boehm
C. Bev Littlewood
D. Roger Pressman
Model preferred to create client/server applications is _______________________?
A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model
D. Incremental Model
Processes for evolving a software product depend on __________________?
A. Type of software to be maintained
B. Development processes used
C. Skills and experience of the people involved
D. All of the mentioned
Reverse engineering is the last activity in a re-engineering project _____________________?
A. True
B. False
The Incremental Model is combination of elements of_____________________?
A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model
The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software ?
A. True
B. False
Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What kind of system the example represents ?
A. Complex System
B. Technical computer-based system
C. Sociotechnical System
D. Both Complex and Sociotechnical System
Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its operators, and its operating environment ?
A. security
B. usability
C. volume
D. reliability
There are _______________ overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical systems?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected ?
A. security
B. usability
C. volume
D. reliability
In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely ?
A. only software reliability
B. only hardware reliability
C. hardware and software reliability
D. hardware, software and operator reliability
Sociotechnical systems are deterministic ?
A. True
B. False
Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems ?
A. True
B. False
Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model ?
A. six
B. seven
C. eight
D. nine
What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system ?
A. hardware and software approach
B. management and users approach
C. person and systems approach
D. all of the mentioned
Software Maintenance includes ?
A. Error corrections
B. Enhancements of capabilities
C. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
D. All of the mentioned
The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance ?
A. Corrective
B. Adaptive
C. Perfective
D. Preventive
Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”technique.How many selective retest techniques are there?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
_______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications ?
A. Efficiency
B. Precision
C. Generality
D. Inclusiveness
The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as ___________________?
A. Software engineering
B. Software re-engineering
C. Reverse engineering
D. Re-engineering
What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance ?
A. Actual change track
B. Annual change track
C. Annual change traffic
D. Actual change traffic
What is a software patch ?
A. Required or Critical Fix
B. Emergency Fix
C. Daily or routine Fix
D. None of the mentioned
Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing ?
A. It helps in development of software
B. It helps in maintenance of software
C. It helps in development & maintenance of software
D. none of the mentioned
Which one of the following is not a maintenance model ?
A. Waterfall model
B. Reuse-oriented model
C. Iterative enhancement model
D. Quick fix model
What are legacy systems ?
A. new systems
B. old systems
C. under-developed systems
D. none of the mentioned
Which of the following manuals is a user documentation ?
A. SRS -Software Requirement Specification
B. SDD -Software Design Document
C. System Overview
D. None of the mentioned
How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software maintenance ?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Which of the following is a software process certification ?
A. JAVA Certified
B. IBM Certified
C. ISO-9000
D. Microsoft Certified
Third Party Certification for software standards is based on ___________________?
A. Ul 1998, Second Edition
B. UT 1998, Second Edition
C. Ul 1992, Second Edition
D. Ul 1996, Second Edition
Which standard is followed in aviation industry ?
A. CTRADO-172B
B. RTCADO-178B
C. RTRADO-178B
D. CTCADO-178B
Which of the following is a field related to certification ?
A. Person
B. Process
C. Product
D. All of the mentioned
The process of transforming a model into source code is known as___________________?
A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse engineering
C. Re-engineering
D. Reconstructing
Which of the following manuals is not a user documentation ?
A. Beginner’s Guide
B. Installation guide
C. Reference Guide
D. SRS
How many levels, does the DO-178B certification targeted by RTCADO-178B has ?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
CSTE stands for ____________________?
A. Certified Software Technology
B. Certified Software Tester
C. Certified Software Trainee
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following companies provide certifications for their own products ?
A. CISCO
B. ORACLE
C. Microsoft
D. All of the mentioned
What are the goals to gain Laboratory Accreditation ?
A. Increase availability of testing services through third-party laboratories
B. Increase availability of testing market to encourage development of software testing industry
C. Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing services
D. All of the mentioned
CSQA stands for __________________?
A. Certified Software Quality Analyst
B. Certified Software Quality Approved
C. Certified Software Quality Acclaimed
D. None of the mentioned
National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program approve accreditation in ___________________?
A. Environmental standards
B. Computers and electronics
C. Product testing
D. All of the mentioned
Robustness” answers which of the following description ?
A. CASE tools be used to support the process activities
B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
D. Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified ?
A. Process measurement
B. Process analysis
C. Process change
D. None of the mentioned
“Understandability” answers which of the following description ?
A. The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software product
D. Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called__________________?
A. Process metric
B. Process analysis
C. Process modelling
D. None of the mentioned
What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers ?
A. Role
B. Exception
C. Activity
D. Process
Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process ?
A. Informal
B. Managed
C. Methodical
D. Supported
How many stages are there in process improvement ?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems ?
A. True
B. False
What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan ?
A. Deliverable
B. Activity
C. Condition
D. Process
Which of the following is not a part of process change ?
A. Introducing new practices, methods or processes
B. Introducing new team members to existing project
C. Introducing or removing deliverable
D. Introducing new roles or responsibilities
It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model ?
A. True
B. False
The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x ?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project ?
A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group
____________ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics?
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9000-4
C. CMM
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification tests ?
A. CMM
B. ISO 9001
C. ISO 9000-3
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM ?
A. Design
B. Repeatable
C. Managed
D. Optimizing
CO policy in CMM means___________________?
A. The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
B. The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
C. The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
D. The planning practices in Commitment to Perform
The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes ?
A. True
B. False
What is not included in prevention costs ?
A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model ?
A. True
B. False
Which of the following is not included in failure costs ?
A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned
Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called_________________?
A. Quality Control
B. Quality of conformance
C. Quality Assurance
D. None of the mentioned
Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured ?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not included in External failure costs ?
A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software ?
A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. SQA group
D. All of the mentioned
CMM stands for_____________________?
A. Capability Management Module
B. Conservative Maturity Model
C. Capability Maturity Module
D. Capability Maturity Model
ISO 9001 is not concerned with _______________ of quality records?
A. collection
B. maintenance
C. verification
D. dis-positioning
The CMM emphasizes____________________?
A. continuous process improvement
B. the need to record information
C. the need to accept quality system
D. none of the mentioned
In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in_________________________?
A. Software Product Engineering
B. Software Quality Assurance
C. Software Subcontract Management
D. Software Quality Management
According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be____________________?
A. deleted
B. eliminated
C. identified
D. eliminated and identified
The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software?
A. errors
B. equivalent faults
C. failure cause
D. none of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA ?
A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. quality planning
D. testing
Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications ?
A. Efficiency
B. Precision
C. Generality
D. Inclusiveness
Regression testing is a very expensive activity?
A. True
B. False
Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version?
A. Coverage
B. Minimization
C. Safe
D. Maximization
What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance ?
A. Regression Testing
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
Which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an accident ?
A. Risk
B. Hazard probability
C. Accident
D. Damage
A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as _____________________ ?
A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D. System failure
An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers.What kind of dependability and security issue the example states ?
A. Hazard avoidance
B. Damage limitation
C. Hazard detection
D. Hazard detection and removal
A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states ?
A. Hazard avoidance
B. Damage limitation
C. Hazard detection
D. Hazard detection and removal
The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment ?
A. True
B. False
An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system users is known as________________?
A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D. System failure
An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is known as _________________?
A. Risk
B. Hazard probability
C. Hazard severity
D. Mishap
A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ________________ with respect to security systems?
A. risk
B. control
C. attack
D. asset
A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as ?
A. Vulnerability
B. Attack
C. Threat
D. Exposure
Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here ?
A. Loss of service
B. Incorrect service delivery
C. System/data corruption
D. None of the mentioned
An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as expected by its users is called __________________?
A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D. System failure
How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification ?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
POFOD stands for___________________?
A. Possibility of failure of data
B. Probability of failure of data
C. Possibility of failure on demand
D. Probability of failure on demand
Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system ?
A. Checking requirements
B. Recovery requirements
C. Redundancy requirements
D. Ambiguous requirements
Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system ?
A. Checking requirements
B. Recovery requirements
C. Redundancy requirements
D. Ambiguous requirements
To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with ?
A. True
B. False
Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period ?
A. POFOD
B. ROCOF
C. AVAIL
D. None of the mentioned
At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions ?
A. Preliminary risk analysis
B. Life-cycle risk analysis
C. Operational risk analysis
D. All of the mentioned
Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure is being described here ?
A. Loss of service
B. Incorrect service delivery
C. System/data corruption
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ?
A. Medical Systems
B. Power Systems
C. Library Management
D. Telecommunications
Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants” ?
A. Diverse
B. Documentable
C. Auditable
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ?
A. Different programming languages
B. Different design methods and tools
C. Explicit specification of different algorithms
D. All of the mentioned
What is the term for development process organised such that faults in the system are detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ?
A. Fault Avoidance
B. Fault detection
C. Fault tolerance
D. None of the mentioned
What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure ?
A. Fault Avoidance
B. Fault detection
C. Fault tolerance
D. None of the mentioned
The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be minimized ?
A. True
B. False
What is a Range check ?
A. Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
B. Check that the input falls within a known range
C. Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value
D. None of the mentioned
Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance ?
A. True
B. False
Which of the following is not a Protection system ?
A. System to stop a train if it passes a red light
B. System to indicate not returning of the library book
C. System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too high
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ?
A. Limit the visibility of information in a program
B. Check array bounds
C. Check all inputs for validity
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ?
A. Platform-level protection
B. Application-level protection
C. Record-level protection
D. All of the mentioned
What are security controls ?
A. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful
B. Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
C. Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
D. All of the mentioned
Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to ______________ in dependability engineering?
A. Fault avoidance
B. Fault tolerance
C. Fault detection
D. Fault Recovery
Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist malicious attacks ?
A. True
B. False
What is Life cycle risk assessment ?
A. Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
B. Risk assessment while the system is being developed
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned
A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as ________________________?
A. Asset
B. Control
C. Vulnerability
D. None of the mentioned
Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as___________________?
A. Attack
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Control
An impersonation of an authorised user is an example of a security threat ?
A. True
B. False
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Pointer Arithmetic” ?
A. Storage management faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults
Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical systems?
A. True
B. False
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: “Unreachable code”?
A. Control Faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults
Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
A. Characteristic error checking
B. User-defined error checking
C. Assertion checking
D. All of the mentioned
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-usage of the results of functions”?
A. Storage management faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Variables declared but never used”?
A. Control Faults
B. Data Faults
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults
Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods ___________________?
A. Concurrent systems can be analysed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock
B. Producing a mathematical specification requires a detailed analysis of the requirements
C. They require the use of specialised notations that cannot be understood by domain experts
D. All of the mentioned
The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which security concept ?
A. Asset
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Control
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking ?
A. Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
B. Model checking is computationally very inexpensive
C. The model checker explores all possible paths through the model
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ?
A. Formal verification
B. Model checking
C. Automated program analysis
D. All of the mentioned
Static Analysis involves executing a program ?
A. True
B. False
In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
A. Architecture
B. Data
C. Interface
D. All of the mentioned
In the Analysis phase, the development of the ______________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project ?
A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design
Who designs and implement database structures ?
A. Programmers
B. Project managers
C. Technical writers
D. Database administrators
Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
A. Analysis
B. Design
C. Problem/Opportunity Identification
D. Development and Documentation
A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as ___________________?
A. Sequential structure
B. A List
C. A plan
D. An Algorithm
Actual programming of software code is done during the __________________ step in the SDLC?
A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Design
C. Analysis
D. Development and Documentation
Which tool is use for structured designing ?
A. Program flowchart
B. Structure chart
C. Data-flow diagram
D. Module

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

_______________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task ?
A. Project design
B. Installation
C. Systems analysis
D. Programming
Debugging is_________________?
A. creating program code
B. finding and correcting errors in the program code
C. identifying the task to be computerized
D. creating the algorithm
The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is___________________?
A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Complexity
Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity ?
A. Modules are robust
B. Module can use other modules
C. Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
D. Modules are mostly dependent
Which of the following is the best type of module coupling ?
A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. Data Coupling
D. Content Coupling
Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________________________?
A. Functions
B. Modules
C. Classes
D. Sub procedures
__________________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules ?
A. Cohesion
B. Coupling
C. None of the mentioned
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling ?
A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling
Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion ?
A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion
In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another ?
A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling
Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?
A. Object oriented analysis
B. Object oriented design
C. Structured approach
D. Both Object oriented analysis and design
If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited ?
A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion
Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion ?
A. Logical Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Coincidental Cohesion
Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design ?
A. It consists of module definitions
B. Modules represent data abstraction
C. Modules support functional abstraction
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?
A. A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
B. Functions represent some activity
C. Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
D. All of the mentioned
Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in_______________?
A. SDD
B. SRS
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?
A. Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
B. Maintains the data dictionary
C. Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
D. It complies with the available system
Structured Analysis is based on the principles of___________________?
A. Top-down decomposition approach
B. Divide and conquer principle
C. Graphical representation of results using DFDs
D. All of the mentioned
In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by ____________________?
A. Circle
B. Arrow
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle ?
A. Transform
B. Data Store
C. Function
D. None of the mentioned
SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies ?
A. Constantine and Yourdon methodology
B. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
C. Gane and Sarson methodology
D. All of the mentioned
To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming language is the purpose of_______________?
A. Structured Analysis (SA)
B. Structured Design (SD)
C. Detailed Design (DD)
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ?
A. Functional decomposition
B. Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
C. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
D. All of the mentioned
The context diagram is also known as __________________?
A. Level-0 DFD
B. Level-1 DFD
C. Level-2 DFD
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool ?
A. Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
B. Maintaining the data dictionary
C. Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
D. All of the mentioned
A directed arc or line in DFD represents_________________?
A. Data Store
B. Data Process
C. Data Flow
D. All of the mentioned
Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a_______________?
A. Physical file
B. Data Structure
C. Logical file
D. All of the mentioned
What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?
A. Object
B. Class
C. Super Class
D. Sub Class
Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD. is true ?
A. OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
B. OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures ?
A. operations that manipulate data in some way
B. operations that perform a computation
C. operations that check for syntax errors
D. operations that monitor an object for the occurrence of a controlling event
A design description in OOD includes___________________?
A. Protocol Description
B. Implementation Description
C. Type Description
D. both Protocol and Implementation Description
A design description of an object is known as a class__________________?
A. instance
B. object
C. case
D. both instance and object
Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “micro development process” and a “macro development process.” ?
A. Booch method
B. Rumbaugh method
C. Wirfs-Brock method
D. Coad and Yourdon method
Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects ?
A. PACKAGE
B. PROC
C. PRIVATE
D. None of the mentioned
Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as _____________________?
A. HTML
B. XML
C. UML
D. SGML
How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid ?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. one
Objects are executed _____________________?
A. sequentially
B. in Parallel
C. sequentially & Parallel
D. none of the mentioned
Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name ?
A. Aggregation
B. Polymorphism
C. Inheritance
D. All of the mentioned
How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages ?
A. Inheritance
B. Polymorphism
C. Encapsulation
D. Abstract Classes
Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?
A. Easier maintenance
B. Objects may be
understood as stand-alone entities
C. Objects are potentially reusable components
D. None of the mentioned
Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as_________________?
A. Active Object
B. Passive Object
C. Multiple instance
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Which of the following is the task of project indicators ?
A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project
B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D. none of the mentioned
The intent of project metrics is_____________________?
A. minimization of development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on ______________________?
A. E – errors found before software delivery
B. D – defects found after delivery to user
C. Both E and D
D. Varies with project
In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _____________________?
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage
A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as_________________?
A. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B. Function points analysis
C. Control Chart
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is an indirect measure of product ?
A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance ?
A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process ?
A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Usability can be measured in terms of_________________?
A. Intellectual skill to learn the system
B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two or more web pages ?
A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Web Page Similarity
D. Number of Internal Page Links
Link based measures rely on _____________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages?
A. Embedded
B. Hyperlink
C. Dynamic
D. All of the mentioned
Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about____________ for a web page that is to be built?
A. size
B. complexity
C. effort
D. all of the mentioned
Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
A. Word Token
B. Word Count
C. Word Size
D. Word Length
How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?
A. Directly
B. Indirectly
C. No relation
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ?
A. Content based
B. Link based
C. Usage based
D. Traffic based
Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of______________________?
A. Analysis Model
B. Testing
C. Design Model
D. Source Code
Function Point Computation is given by the formula___________________?
A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here ?
A. “fan check-out” of module i
B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan out” of module i
SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules______________?
A. in the current release
B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned
Architectural Design Metrics are ______________ in nature ?
A. Black Box
B. White Box
C. Gray Box
D. Green Box
How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Which of the following is not a metric for design model ?
A. Interface design metrics
B. Component-level metrics
C. Architectural metrics
D. Complexity metrics
Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?
A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Number of Inherited Objects
D. Word Count
Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by_______________?
A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
SMI stands for_______________?
A. Software Mature Indicator
B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator
The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as_________________?
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software_________________?0
A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned
Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ?
A. Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)]
D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]
Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of__________________?
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio ?
A. maximum number of nodes at any level
B. longest path from the root to a leaf
C. number of modules
D. lines of control
MTTC falls the the category of____________________?
A. correctness
B. integrity
C. maintainability
D. all of the mentioned
Which of the following describes”Is-a-Relationship” ?
A. Aggregation
B. Inheritance
C. Dependency
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics ?
A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics
Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects ?
A. Objects are abstractions of real-world
B. Objects can’t manage themselves
C. Objects encapsulate state and representation information
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors ?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity
Size and Complexity are a part of____________________?
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a____________________?
A. measurement
B. measure
C. metric
D. all of the mentioned
Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Identify the sub-process of process improvement ___________________?
A. Process introduction
B. Process analysis
C. De-processification
D. Process distribution
Which of the following is not project management goal ?
A. Keeping overall costs within budget
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D. Avoiding customer complaints
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system ?
A. Internship management
B. Change management
C. Version management
D. System management
What describes the data and control to be processed ?
A. Planning process
B. Software scope
C. External hardware
D. Project complexity
The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ___________________?
A. Project Management
B. Manager life cycle
C. Project Management Life Cycle
D. All of the mentioned
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for__________________?
A. team
B. project
C. customers
D. project manager
Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates ?
A. Project size
B. Planning process
C. Project complexity
D. Degree of structural uncertainty
Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project ?
A. travel and training costs
B. hardware and software costs
C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
D. all of the mentioned
A 66.6% risk is considered as__________________?
A. very low
B. low
C. moderate
D. high
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management ?
A. Specification delays
B. Product competition
C. Testing
D. Staff turnover
The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as___________________?
A. Association
B. Decomposition
C. Planning process
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate ?
A. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
B. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
C. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
D. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right ?
A. Automated estimation tools
B. Empirical estimation models
C. Decomposition techniques
D. Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project ?
A. Hardware and software costs
B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools ?
A. Predicting staffing levels
B. Predicting software cost
C. Predicting software schedules
D. Predicting clients demands
What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software ?
A. Function-related metrics
B. Product-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
D. None of the mentioned
The environment that supports the software project is called_______________________?
A. CLSS
B. SEE
C. FAST
D. CBSE
CLSS stands for_____________________?
A. conveyor line sorting system
B. conveyor line sorting software
C. conveyor line sorting speed
D. conveyor line sorting specification
A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called ?
A. JAD
B. CLASS
C. FAST
D. None of the mentioned
A _______________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost ?
A. Algorithmic cost modelling
B. Expert judgement
C. Estimation by analogy
D. Parkinson’s Law
Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost ?
A. Costs of networking and communications
B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
C. Costs of lunch time food
D. Costs of support staff
Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed ?
A. Algorithmic cost modelling
B. Expert judgement
C. Estimation by analogy
D. Parkinson’s Law
Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available ?
A. CASE tools
B. Pricing to win
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Expert judgement
Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools ?
A. An application-composition model
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model
Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established ?
A. An application-composition model
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model
Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming ?
A. An application-composition model
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model
Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II ?
A. Early design estimation model
B. Application Composition estimation model
C. Comprehensive cost estimation model
D. Post architecture estimation model
Estimation of size for a project is dependent on___________________?
A. Cost
B. Time
C. Schedule
D. None of the mentioned
Which one is not a size measure for software product ?
A. LOC
B. Halstead’s program length
C. Function Count
D. Cyclomatic Complexity
What all has to be identified as per risk identification ?
A. Threats
B. Vulnerabilities
C. Consequences
D. All of the mentioned
COCOMO-II was developed at _____________________?
A. University of Texas
B. University of Southern California
C. MIT
D. IIT-Kanpur
COCOMO was developed initially by _____________________ ?
A. B.Beizer
B. Rajiv Gupta
C. B.W.Bohem
D. Gregg Rothermal
Read More Details about this Mcq
Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount ?
A. Early design stage model
B. Post-architecture-stage model
C. Application composition model
D. All of the mentioned
Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established ?
A. Early design stage model
B. Post-architecture-stage model
C. Application composition model
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP ?
A. FP-Based Estimation
B. Process-Based Estimation
C. COCOMO
D. Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
Which one is not a risk management activity ?
A. Risk assessment
B. Risk generation
C. Risk control
D. None of the mentioned
COCOMO stands for____________________?
A. Constructive cost model
B. Comprehensive cost model
C. Constructive cost estimation model
D. Complete cost estimation model
What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss ?
A. Risk exposure
B. Risk prioritization
C. Risk analysis
D. All of the mentioned
What threatens the viability of the software to be built ?
A. Known risks
B. Business risks
C. Project risks
D. Technical risks
Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified ?
A. Business impact risks
B. Process definition risks
C. Product size risks
D. Development environment risks
Which of the following is not a business risk ?
A. building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
B. losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
C. lack of documented requirements or software scope
D. losing budgetary or personnel commitment
What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced ?
A. Known risks
B. Business risks
C. Project risks
D. Technical risks
Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan ?
A. Risk identification
B. Performance risk
C. Support risk
D. Risk projection
Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace ?
A. Business impact risks
B. Process definition risks
C. Product size risks
D. Development environment risks
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
A. Staff turnover
B. Technology change
C. Management change
D. Product competition
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
A. Performance risk
B. Cost risk
C. Support risk
D. Schedule risk
Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected ?
A. Product risk
B. Project risk
C. Business risk
D. Programming risk
Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system ?
A. Managerial risks
B. Technology risks
C. Estimation risks
D. Organizational risks
Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced ?
A. Avoidance strategies
B. Minimization strategies
C. Contingency plans
D. All of the mentioned
Why is decomposition technique required ?
A. Software project estimation is a form of problem solving
B. Developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex
C. All of the mentioned
D. None of the mentioned
Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain characteristics ?
A. Function point sizing
B. Change sizing
C. Standard component sizing
D. Fuzzy logic sizing
How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model ?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. No form exists
If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in__________________?
A. LOC
B. FP
C. LOC and FP
D. None of the mentioned
The expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as a weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess) estimates given as___________________?
A. EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4
B. EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
C. EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
D. EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4
If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as_______________?
A. LOC
B. FP
C. Fuzzy Logic
D. LOC and FP
Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus ?
A. people
B. product
C. popularity
D. process
A software ______________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established?
A. people
B. product
C. process
D. none of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation ?
A. Empirical
B. Heuristic
C. Analytical
D. Critical
Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait ?
A. Problem solving
B. Managerial identity
C. Influence and team building
D. None of the mentioned
Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves ?
A. random paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members ?
A. random paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm ?
A. asynchronous paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use ?
A. End-users
B. Client
C. Project (technical) managers
D. Senior managers
Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks ?
A. Controlled decentralized (CD)
B. Democratic decentralized (DD)
C. Controlled centralized (CC)
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams ?
A. The difficulty of the problem to be solved
B. High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members
C. The degree of sociability required for the project
D. The rigidity of the delivery date
Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks ?
A. Software Macroscopic schedule
B. Software Project scheduling
C. Software Detailed schedule
D. None of the mentioned
SPMP stands for__________________?
A. Software Project Manager’s Plan
B. Software Project Management Plan
C. Software Product Management Plan
D. Software Product Manager’s Plan
Which software engineering team has no permanent leader ?
A. Controlled decentralized (CD)
B. Democratic decentralized (DD)
C. Controlled Centralized (CC)
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is a people-intensive activity ?
A. Problem solving
B. Organization
C. Motivation
D. Project management
Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application ?
A. Practitioners
B. Project managers
C. Senior managers
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity ?
A. project control
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project design
Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in____________________?
A. project delay
B. poor quality work
C. project failure
D. all of the mentioned
Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique ?
A. Formal approaches
B. Formal, interpersonal procedures
C. Informal, interpersonal procedures
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late ?
A. Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
B. Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
C. Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy?
A. Software people don’t understand their customers needs
B. Changes are managed poorly
C. Sponsorship is gained
D. Users are resistant
Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project ?
A. Practitioners
B. Project managers
C. Senior managers
D. None of the mentioned
PM-CMM stands for___________________?
A. people management capability maturity model
B. process management capability maturity model
C. product management capability maturity model
D. project management capability maturity model
v Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers ?
A. Personnel Factor
B. Product Factor
C. Platform Factor
D. Project Factor
Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition ?
A. External inputs
B. External outputs
C. External process
D. External inquiries
Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem ?
A. Putnam
B. Myers
C. Boehm
D. Putnam and Myers
A make-buy decision is based on whether________________?
A. The software may be purchased off-the-shelf
B. “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software components should be used
C. Customer-built software should be developed
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.” ?
A. Underestimated development time
B. Organizational restructuring
C. Requirements changes
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed ?
A. People risks
B. Technology risks
C. Estimation risks
D. Organizational risks
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.” ?
A. Technology change
B. Product competition
C. Requirements change
D. None of the mentioned
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a__________________?
A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D. Project manager
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk ?
A. Risk monitoring
B. Risk planning
C. Risk analysis
D. Risk identification
Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis ?
A. Problem decomposition
B. Partitioning
C. Problem elaboration
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new codeline from a version in an existing codeline” ?
A. Branching
B. Merging
C. Codeline
D. Mainline
Which of the following is a part of system release ?
A. electronic and paper documentation describing the system
B. packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
C. an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
D. all of the mentioned
Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system ?
A. Version
B. Codeline
C. Baseline
D. None of the mentioned
A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as ____________________?
A. System building
B. Mainline
C. Software Configuration Item(SCI)
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is a configuration item ?
A. Design & Test specification
B. Source code
C. Log information
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a build system feature ?
A. Minimal recompilation
B. Documentation generation
C. Storage management
D. Reporting
Which of the following is not a Version management feature ?
A. Version and release identification
B. Build script generation
C. Project support
D. Change history recording
Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems ?
A. Agile method
B. Parallel compilation method
C. Large systems method
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes ?
A. Change management
B. Version management
C. System building
D. Release management
What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use ?
A. System building
B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management
Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?
A. Codeline
B. Configuration control
C. Version
D. Workspace
The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in__________________?
A. ISO 9000
B. CMM
C. CMMI
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools ?
A. Tracking of change proposals
B. Storing versions of system components
C. Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
D. None of the mentioned
What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review ?
A. Software configuration audit
B. Software configuration management
C. Baseline
D. None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity ?
A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management
Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system ?
A. System building
B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management
What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process ?
A. Change control
B. Version control
C. SCIs
D. None of the mentioned
Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change ?
A. Baselines
B. Source code
C. Data model
D. None of the mentioned
What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project ?
A. 40-20-40
B. 50-20-30
C. 30-40-30
D. 50-30-20
Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include __________________?
A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
D. All of the mentioned
Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process ?
A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
D. all of the mentioned
Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects ?
A. Size of the project
B. Customers Complaints
C. Project staff
D. Mission criticality
A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as______________________?
A. BCWS
B. EVA
C. BAC
D. CBSE
What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project ?
A. Degree of Rigor
B. Adaptation criteria
C. Task Set
D. Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria
Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development ?
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. CMM
D. Both PERT and CPM
What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope ?
A. Concept scoping
B. Preliminary concept planning
C. Technology risk assessment
D. Customer reaction to the concept
Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as ________________?
A. Time Allocation
B. Effort Validation
C. Defined Milestone
D. Effort Distribution
Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as_________________?
A. Compartmentalization
B. Defined milestones
C. Defined responsibilities
D. Defined outcomes
What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project ?
A. Task set
B. Degree of milestone
C. Adaptation criteria
D. All of the mentioned
A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by_________________?
A. Henry Gantt
B. Barry Boehm
C. Ivar Jacabson
D. None of the mentioned
_________________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system ?
A. physical
B. logical
C. process
D. all of the mentioned
Which is the limitation of high level language?
A. Lower efficiency 
B. Machine  dependence
C. Machine  level  coding
D. None of  the above
FTP best matches with which OSI layer ?
A. Physical
B. Transport
C. Datalink
D. Application
Handshaking is a ?
A. Smooth running of a program.
B. Context-free Language.
C. A programming language with self-correcting codes.
D. Synchronization between two communicating devices.
Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations and relating schemas?
A. DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
B. DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
C. Query
D. Relational Schema
A type of language in which the instruction are written in binary foam is called?
A. Machine language
B. C++
C. C
D. java
A language in which a program is written on the basic of object?
A. Machine language
B. C++
C. Object-Oriented language
D. All of these

Mechanical Engineering MCQs

Mechanical Engineering MCQs
Mechanical Engineering MCQs

Mechanical Engineering MCQs

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 2: Stamflay.com

Mechanical Engineering Mcqs:
The unit of power in S.I. units is______________?
A. newton meter
B. watt
C. joule
D. kilogram meter/sec
E. pascal per sec
If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be________________?
A. P/2 cos 9/2
B. IP sin 9/2
C. 2P tan 9/2
D. IP cos 9/2
E. Psin 9/2
Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?
A. Momentum and impulse
B. Torque and energy
C. Torque and work
D. Kinetic energy and potential energy
E. Moment of a force and angular momentum
Which of the following is not the unit of power ?
A. kW (kilowatt)
B. hp (horse power)
C. kcal/sec
D. kg m/sec
E. kcal/kg sec
The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of__________________?
A. forces
B. independence of forces
C. dependence of forces
D. balance of force
E. resolution of forces
If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in________________?
A. non-equilibrium
B. partial equilibrium
C. full equilibrium
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of__________________?
A. zeioth order
B. first order
C. second order
D. third order
E. fourth order
In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows_________________?
A. W between P and F
B. F between W and P
C. P between W and F
D. W, P and F all on one side
E. none of the above
Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?
A. kg/cm
B. ata
C. atmosphere
D. mm of wcl
E. newton
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A. discharge
B. velocity of gas
C. pressure intensity of gas
D. pressure intensity of liquid
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A. pascal
B. poise
C. stoke
D. faraday
E. none of the above
Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension
Poise is the unit of________________?
A. surface tension
B. capillarity
C. viscosity
D. shear stress in fluids
E. buoyancy
Barometer is used to measure__________________?
A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. atmospheric pressure
C. very low pressure
D. difference of pressure between two points
E. rain level
Center of buoyancy is the___________________?
A. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. center of pressure of displaced volume
C. e.g. of floating ‘body
D. does not exist
E. none of the above
Metacentre is the point of intersection of _________________________?
A. vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. buoyant force and the center line of body
C. mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Buoyant force is___________________?
A. resultant force acting on a floating body
B. equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C. force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
D. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
E. none of the above
A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
A. 900 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
D. 4 (225)1/3 minutes
E. 4 x V225 minutes
Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to_______________?
A. steady flow
B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. uniform flow
E. critical flow
For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is___________________?
A. unity
B. greater than unity
C. greater than 2
D. greater than 4
E. greater than 10
All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation have dimension of_______________?
A. energy
B. work
C. mass
D. length
E. time
The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are__________________?
A. gravity, pressure and viscous
B. gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. gravity, viscous and turbulent
E. none of the above
For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is__________________?
A. less than 2000
B. between 2000 and 4000
C. more than 4000
D. less than 4000
E. none of the above
In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is__________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero finite
E. unpredictable
Adiabatic compression is one in which___________________?
A. temperature during compression remains constant
B. no heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during cornpression
C. temperature rise follows a linear relationship
D. work done is maximum
E. entropy decreases
The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it_________________?
A. isothermally
B. adiabatically
C. isentropically
D. isochronically
E. as per law pV
Isothermal compression effeicency can be attained by running the compressor__________________?
A. at very high speed
B. at very slow speed
C. at average speed
D. at zero speed
E. isothermally
Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be approached by using A. multi-stage compression B. cold water spray C. both A. and B. above D. fully insulating the cylinder E. high stroke_________________?
Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be approached by using
A. multi-stage compression
B. cold water spray
C. both A. and B. above
D. fully insulating the cylinder
E. high stroke
The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are_________________?
A. atmospheric
B. slightly more than atmospheric
C. slightly less than atmospheric
D. pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly less than atmospheric
E. pressure sightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly more than atmospheric
The overall isothermal eiffciency of compressor is defined as the ratio of_______________?
A. isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
B. isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
C. power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
D. work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
E. isothermal work to ideal work
1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately__________________?
A. 0.5 kg
B. 1.0 kg
C. 1.3 kg
D. 2.2 kg
E. 3.2 kg
Free air is the air at________________?
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.
The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih. 5 m /min refers to_______________?
A. standard air
B. free air
C. compressed air
D. compressed air at delivery pressure
E. air sucked
Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression is_________________?
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. polytropic
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
Standard air is the air at_____________________?
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature_________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. increases upto certain limit and then decreases
Inter cooling in compressors__________________?
A. cools the delivered air
B. results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
C. is the standard practice for big compressors
D. enables compression in two stages
E. prevents compressor jacket running very hot
Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not -practicable because_________________?
A. ityrequires very big cylinder
B. it does not increase pressure much
C. it is impossible in practice
D. compressor has to run at very slow speed to achieve it
E. it requires cylinder to be placed in water
What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt ?
A. 3 m3/mt
B. 1.5 m3/mt
C. 18 m3/mt
D. 6 m3/mt
E. 0.75 m3/mt
An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes________________?
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume
The work done per unit mass of air in compression will’be least when n is equal to______________?
A. 1
B. 1.2 ,
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
E. 1.5
An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes_______________?
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume,
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume
Compression efficiency is compared against_____________________?
A. ideal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. botii isothermal and adiabatic compression
D. isentropic compression
E. isothermal compression
Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor_______________?
A. radial flow
B. axial flow
C. centrifugal
D. combination of above
E. none of the above
Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as_________________?
A. mechanical efficiency
B. volumetric efficiency
C. isothermal efficiency
D. adiabatic efficiency
E. relative efficiency
Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be _________________?
A. as large as possible
B. as small as possible
C. about 50% of swept volume
D. about 100% of swept volume
E. none of the above
Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order of________________?
A. 20-30%
B. 40-50%
C. 60-70%
D. 70-90%
E. 90-100%
Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume________________?
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. is not dependent upon compressin ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable
Volumetric efficiency is_____________________?
A. the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B. the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
C. reciprocal of compression ratio
D. index of compressor performance
E. proportional to compression ratio
Ratio of compression is the ratio of__________________?
A. gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure
B. absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute intake pressure
C. pressures at discharge and suction cor-responding to same temperature
D. stroke volume and clearance volume
E. none of the above
The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called ______________?
A. compression index
B. compression ratio
C. compressor efficiency
D. mean effective pressure
E. compressor effectiveness
The net work input required for compressor with increase in clearance volume_____________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. increases/decreases depending on com-pressor capacity
E. unpredictable
Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential __________________?
A. to accommedate Valves in the cylinder head
B. to provide cushioning effect
C. to attain high volumetric efficiency
D. to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
E. to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume ________________?
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. in not dependent upon compression ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable
Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for air compressor_________________?
A. from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
B. from outside atmosphere at 1°C
C. from coal yard side
D. from a side where cooling tower is located nearby
E. from any one of the above locations
Which is false statement about multistage compression ?
A. Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
B. Volumetric efficiency is high
C. It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
D. The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
E. Outlet temperature is reduced
Euler’s equation is applicable for__________________?
A. centrifugal compressor
B. axial compressor
C. pumps
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as__________________?
A. compressor efficiency
B. isothermal efficiency
C. volumetric efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
E. adiabatic efficiency
The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum because____________________?
A. it allows maximum compression to be achieved
B. it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
C. it results in minimum work
D. it permits isothermal compression
E. none of the above
Which is false statement about air receivers ___________________?
A. These are used to dampen pulsations ,
B. These act as reservoir to- take care of sudden demands
C. These increase compressor efficiency
D. These knock out some oil and moisture
E. These reduce frequent on/off operation of compressors
Rotary compressor is best suited for_____________________?
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above
After-cooler is used to__________________?
A. cool the air
B. decrease the delivery temperature for ease in handling
C. cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
D. reduce volume
E. increase pressure
Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for___________________?
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above
The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is___________________?
A. lowest
B. highest
C. anything.
D. atmospheric
E. none of the above
In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by_________________?
A. employing intercooler
B. by constantly cooling the cylinder
C. by running compressor at very slow speed
D. by insulating the cylinder
E. none of the above
Mining industry usually employs following motive power___________________?
A. A.C. electric motor
B. compressed air
C. petrol engine
D. diesel engine
E. D.C. electric motor
Separators in compressor installations are located_____________________?
A. before intercooler
B. after intercooler
C. after receiver
D. between after-cooler and air receiver
E. before suction
An air compressor may be controlled by____________________?
A. throttle control B. clearance control
C. blow-off control
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
During peak load periods, the best method of controlling compressors is___________________?
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
E. none of the above
The compressor performance at higher altitude compared to sea level will be _______________?
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. dependent on other factors
E. none of the above
A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of__________________?
A. conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
B. conversion of kinetic energy into pres¬sure energy
C. centripetal action
D. generating pressure directly
E. combination of A. and D.
A compressor at high altitude will draw________________?
A. more power
B. less power
C. same power
D. more/less power depending on other factors
E. none of the above
The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by________________?
A. radial component
B. axial component
C. tangential component
D. resultant component
The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area of ideal indicator diagram is_____________________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. more/less depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable
To aviod moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should __________________?
A. rise gradually towards the point of use
B. drop gradually towards the point of use
C. be laid vertically
D. be laid exactly horizontally
E. none of the above
To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from compressed air lines should be taken from_________________?
A. top side of main
B. bottom side of main
C. left side of main
D. right side of main
E. any location
For a compressor, least work will be done if the compression is________________ ?
A. isentropic
B. isothermal
C. polytropic
D. somewhere in between isentropic and isothermal
E. none of the above
The compressor efficiecny is the__________________?
A. isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
B. isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
C. total output/air input
D. compression work/motor input
E. none Of the above
For slow-speed large capacity compressor, following type of valve will be best suited________________?
A. poppet valve
B. mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve, rotary or semirotary type
C. disc or feather type
D. any of the above
E. none of the above
The volumetirc efficiency of a compressor is calculated on the basis of __________________?
A. volume of air inhaled at working conditions
B. volume of air inhaled at N.T.P. conditions
C. volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. none of the above
During base load operation, the best method of controlling compressor is ___________________?
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
E. none of the above
The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in elevation___________________?
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1.0%
D. 5%
E. 10%.
In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual volume delivered at the stated pressure reduced to ____________________?
A. N.T.P. conditions
B. intake temperature and pressure conditions
C. 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. none of the above
The advantage of multistage compression over single stage compression is ________________?
A. lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
B. higher volumetric efficiency
C. decreased discharge temperature
D. moisture free air
E. all of the above
As the value of index ‘«’ is decreased, the volumetric efficiency will___________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor clearance
E. none of the above
The indicated work per unit mass of air delivered is___________________?
A. directly proportional to clearance volume
B. greatly affected by clearance volume
C. not affected by clearance volume
D. inversely proportional to clearance volume
The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is known as_____________________?
A. pressure coefficient
B. work coefficient
C. polytropic reaction
D. slip factor
E. compressor efficiency
Phenomenon of choking in compressor means __________________?
A. no flow of air
B. fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
C. reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
D. increased inclination of chord with air steam
E. does not occur
Diffuser in a compressor is used to _____________________?
A. increase velocity
B. make the flow stream-line
C. convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
D. convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
E. increase degree of reaction
For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor is best suited__________________?
A. centrifugal
B. reciprocating
C. axial
D. screw
E. turbo jet
Which is false statement about advantages of multistage compressor in comparison to single stage compressor_________________?
A. less power requirement
B. better mechanical balance
C. less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
D. more effective lubrication
E. lower volumetric efficiency
For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index of compression in all stages_________________?
A. work done in first stage should be more
B. work done in subsequent stages should increase
C. work done in subsequent stages should decrease
D. work done in all stages should be equal
E. work done in any stage is no criterion for minimum work but depends on other factors
The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in atmospheric temperature__________________?
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1%
D. 5%
E. 10%.
The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for rotary compressor is_________________?
A. isentropic compression
B. isothermal compression
C. polytropic compression
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
For a two stage compressor* if index of compression for higher stage is greater than index of compression for lower stage, then the optimum pressure as compared to ideal case will___________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. other factors control it
E. unpredictable
Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to__________________?
A. inlet losses
B. impeller channel losses
C. diffuser losses
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multistage compression____________________?
A. better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
B. more loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
C. mechanical balance is better
D. air can be cooled perfectly in between
E. more uniform torque, light cylinder and saving in work
More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating compressor if the delivery pressure is more than____________________?
A. 2 kg/cm2
B. 6 kg/cm2
C. 10 kg/cm2
D. 14.7 kg/cm2
E. none of the above
The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is called__________________?
A. slip factor
B. velocity factor
C. velocity coefficient
D. blade effectiveness
The ratio of isentropic work to euler’s work is known as _____________________?
A. compressor efficiency
B. isentropic efficiency
C. Euler’s efficiency
D. pressure coefficient
E. pressure ratio
The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow comperssor is of the order of________________?
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 5
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
Surging is the phenomenon of___________________?
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure
The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on_______________?
A. isothermal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. isentropic compression
D. polytropic compression
E. none of the above
Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the order of__________________?
A. 6 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm2
C. 16 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2
E. 40 kg/cm2
Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal compressor__________________?
A. larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
B. higher pressure ratio per stage
C. aerofoil blades are used
D. higher average velocities
E. none of the above
Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air pressure will be_____________________ ?
A. 1.03 kg/cm2
B. 1.06 kg/cm2
C. 1.00 kg/cm2
D. 0.53 kg/cm2
E. 0.5 kg/cm2
Axial flow compressor resembles____________________ ?
A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. turbine
D. sliding vane compressor
E. none of the above
The vloumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will ___________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. may increase/decrease depending on clearance volume
E. none of the above
The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on_________________?
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of die above
Open cycle gas turbine works on___________________?
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B Rankine cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle
Gas turbines for power generaion are normally used___________________?
A. to supply base load requirements
B. to supply peak load requirements
C. to enable start thermal power plant
D. in emergency
E. when other sources of power fail
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal com-pressor depends on ___________________?
Pick up wrong statement ?
A. mass flow rate
B. pressure ratio
C. change in load
D. stagnation pressure at the outlet
E. all of the above
The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total increase in pressure in the stage is called__________________?
A. pressure ratio
B. pressure coefficient
C. degree of reaction
D. slip factor
E. stage factor
Actual compression curve is___________________?
A. same as isothermal
B. same as adiabatic
C. better than isothermal and adiabatic
D. in between isothermal and adiabatic
E. none of the above
The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned compressor with increase in mass flow rate_________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. first decreases and then increases
E. unpredictable
Gas turbine works on_______________?
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle
Gas turbine works on______________?
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle
Rotary compressors are suitable for ____________________?
A. large discharge at high pressure
B. low discharge at high pressure
C. large discharge at low pressure
D. low discharge at low pressure
E. there is no such limitation
The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of__________________?
A. net work output and heat supplied (6) net work output and work done by tur¬bine
C. actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
D. net work output and isentropic heat drop
E. isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture and actual increase/ drop in temperature

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is_______________?
A. low
B. high
C. same
D. low/high depending on make and type
E. unpredictable
The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by___________________?
A. low.er heating value
B. higher heating value
C. heating value
D. higher calorific value
E. highest calorific value
Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines is____________________?
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on on odier considerations
E. unpredictable
The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of ______________________?
A. 7 : 1
B. 15 : 1
C. 30 : 1
D. 40 : 1
E. 50: 1
Gas turbine blades are given a rake___________________?
A. equal to zero
B. in the direction of motion of blades
C. opposite to the direction of motion of blades
D. depending on the velocity
E. none of the above
The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel plant is__________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
E. unpredictably
The ratio of specific weighf/h.p. of gas turbin and I.C engines may be typically of the order of_______________________?
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 1:2
E. 1 : 6
The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of__________________?
A. 2:l
b. 4:1
C. 61: 1
D. 9 : 1
E. 12:1.
Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is_________________?
A. higher
B. lower
C. equal
D. can’t be compared
E. unpredictable
The hottest point in a gas turbine is______________________?
A. at the base
B. at the tip
C. in the center
D. between ~ to i of the blade height
E. uniformly heated
Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by________________ ?
A. reheating
B. inter cooling
C. adding a regenerator
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger. Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is____________________?
A. heated
B. compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
C. bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete expansion
D. exhaust gases drive the compressor
E. part of exhaust gases are heated and mixed up with atmospheric air to utilise exhaust heat
The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase in pressure ratio_____________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. first decreases and then increases
E. remains same
Water gas is produced by ___________________ ?
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of caol, eke, anthractie coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas
The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of________________?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 90%
E. 99%
There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would__________________?
A. remain same
B. decrease
C. increase
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on________________?
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is__________________?
A. stainless steel
B. high alloy’ steel
C. duralumin
D. Timken, Haste and Inconel allpys
E. titanium
The jnaximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is_________________?
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. depends on other factors
E. unpredictable
As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum pressure ratio_____________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases
It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because_________________ ?
A. it is inefficient
B. it is bulky
C. it requires cooling water for its operation
D. non of theses
For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work ratio both depend on___________________?
A. pressure ratio alone
B. maximum cycle temperature alone
C. minimum cycle temperature alone
D. both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
E. none of the above
Producer gas is produced by_____________________?
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas
A gas turbine used in air craft should have______________________?
A. high h.p. and low weight
B. low weight and small frontal area
C. small frontal area and high h.p.
D. high speed and high h.p.
E. all of the above
The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of isentropic temperature drop in a blade row to the_____________________?
A. adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
B. total temperature drop
C. total temperature drop in the stage
D. total adiabaitc temperature drop
E. difference of maximum and minimum temperature in the cycle
The closed cycle in gas turbines_________________?
A. provides greater flexibility
B. provides lesser flexibility
C. in never used
D. is used when gas is to be burnt
E. none of the above
Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to___________________?
A. control temperature
B. control output of turbine
C. control fire hazards
D. increase efficiency
E. it is never done
In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of____________________?
A. compressor work and turbine work
B. output and input
C. actual total head tempeature drop to the isentrpic total head drop from total head inlet to static head outlet
D. actual compressor work and theoretical comprssor work
E. none of the above
A closed gas turbine in which fuel is burnt directly in the air is not possible because __________________?
A. high pressure ratio
B. increasing gas temperature
C. high specific volume
D. high friction losses
E. paucity of 02
In gas turbines^ high thermal efficiency is obtained in_________________?
A. closed cycle
B. open cycle
C. both of the above
D. closed/open depending on other con-siderations
E. unpredictable
In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is burnt in an atmosphere of__________________?
A. vacuum
B. atmospheric air
C. compressed air
D. oxygen alone
E. liquid hydrogen
Turbo propeller has the following additional feature over the turbojet __________________?
A. peopeller
B. diffuser
C. intercooler
D. turbine and combustion chamber
E. starting engine
In jet engines, paraffin is usually used as the fuel because of its _________________?
A. high calorific value
B. ease of atomisation
C. low freezing point
D. A. and C. above
E. none of the above
If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine approaches _________________?
A. isothermal
B. isentropic
C. adiabatic
D. isochoric
E. isobaric
Intercooling in gas turbine results in ____________________ ?
A. increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
B. increase in thermal efficiency but decrease in net output
C. increase in both thermal efficiency and net output
D. decrease in both thermal efficiency and net output
E. none of the above
The power available for take off and climb in case of turbojet engine as compared to reciprocating engine is ___________________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depending on ambient conditons
E. unpredictable
Ram compression in turbojet involves____________________?
A. reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of part of it into pressure energy
B. compression of inlet air
C. increasing speed of incoming air
D. lost work
E. leakage losses
A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of____________________?
A. mass
B. energy
C. flow
D. linear momentum
E. angular momentum
Which of the following fuels can be used in turbojet engines _____________________?
A. liquid hydrogne
B. high speed diesel oil
C. kerosene
D. demethylated spirit
E. methyl alcohol
A rocket engine for the combustion of its fuel_____________________?
A. carries its own oxygen
B. uses surrounding air
C. uses compressed atmospheric air
D. does not require oxygen
E. depends on electrical energy supplied by solar cells
Propulsive efficiency is defined as ratio of___________________?
A. thrust power and fuel energy
B. engine output and propulsive power
C. propulsive power and fuel input
D. thrust power and propulsive power
E. none of the above
In the cross compounding of the gas turbine plant__________________?
A. h.p. compressor L connected to h.p. turbine and l.p. compressor ot l.p. tur-bine
B. h.p. compressor is connected to l.p. turbine and l.p. compressor is con-nected to h.p. turbine
C. both the arrangements can be employed
D. all are connected in series
E. none of the above
A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air craft velocity is equal to the_________________?
A. jet velocity
B. twice the jet velocity
C. half the jet velocity
D. average of the jet velocity
E. no such co-relationship with jet velocity exists
The maximum propulsion efficiency of a turbojet is attained at around following speed __________________?
A. 550 km/hr
B. 1050km/hr
C. 1700 km/hr
D. 2400km /hr
E. 4000 km/hr
Propulsion efficiency of the following order-is obtained in practice _______________?
A. 34%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 72%
E. 85%.
The air entry velocity m a rocket as compared to aircraft is_________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. zero
E. dependent on power and speed
In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is used in order to _______________ ?
A. collect more air
B. convert kinetic energy of air into pres-sure energy
C. provide robust structure
D. beautify the shape
E. none of the above
The weight per horse power ratio for gas. turbine as compared to I.C. engine and steam turbine is________________?
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. uncomparable
E. unpredictable
The blades of gas turbine are made of_________________?
A. mild steel
B. stainless steel
C. carbon steel
D. high alloy seel
E. high nicket alloy (neimonic)
Fighter bombers use following type of engine __________________?
A. turbo-jet
B. turbo-propeller
C. rocket
D. ram-jet ,
E. pulsojet
The following property is most important for material used for gas turbine blade___________________?
A. toughness
B. fatigue
C. creep
D. corrosion resistance
E. bulk modulus
The specific output per kg mass flow rate of a gas turbine (having fixed efficiencies of compressor and turine and fixed higher and lower temperature) with increase in pressure ratio will___________________?
A. increase first at fast rate and then slow
B. increase first at slow rate and then fast
C. decrease continuously
D. first increase, reach maximum and then decrease
E. none of the above
The effective power of gas turbines is increased by adding the following in compressor__________________?
A. ammonia and water vapour
B. carbon dioxide
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
E. none of the above
Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be of the order of__________________?
A. 10: 1
B. 15: 1
C. 20 : 1
D. 60 : 1
E. 100 :
In jet engines the compression ratio__________________?
A. varies as square root of the speed
B. Varies linearly to the speed
C. varies as square of the speed
D. varies as cube of the speed
E. is constant irrespective of variation in speed
High air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines______________________?
A. to increase the output
B. to increase the efficiency
C. to save fuel
D. to reduce the exit temperature
E. none of the above
In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum _________________?
A. 2-stroke engine
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. 4-stroke diesef engine
D. multi-cylinder engine
E. gas turbine
Reheating in gas turbine results in___________________?
A. increase of work ratio
B. decrease of thermal efficiency
C. decrease of work ratio
D. both A. and B. above
E. both B. and C. above
Work ratio of a gas turbine may be improved by f____________________?
A. decreasing the compression work
B. increasing the compression work
C. increasing the turbine work
D. decreasing the turbine work
E. A. and C. above
In the aircraft propellers __________________?
A. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
B. propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
C. its functioning does not depend on presence of air
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is ratio of______________________?
A. net work output and work done by turbine
B. net work output and heat supplied
C. work done by turbine and heat supplied
D. work done by turbine and net work output
E. actual/heat drop and isentropic heat drop
The main purpose of reheating in gas turbine is to__________________?
A. increase temperature
B. reduce turbine size
C. increase power output
D. increase speed
E. increase pressure ratio
Gas turbine cycle with Regenerator __________________?
A. increases thermal efficiency
B. allows high compression ratio
C. decreases heat loss is exhaust
D. allows operation at very high altitudes
E. permits high moisture content fuel to be used
Reheating in multistage expansion gas turbine results in____________________?
A. high thermal efficiency
B. reduction in compressor work
C. decrease of heat loss in exhaust
D. maximum work output
E. none of the above
Maximum temprature in a gas turbine is of the order of COMPRESSORS, GAS TURBINES AND JET ENGINES______________________?
A. 2500°C
B. 2000°C
C. 1500°C
D. 1000°C
E. 700°C
In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed by expanding__________________?
A. gases
B. solids
C. liquid
D. plasma
E. highly heated atmospheric air
The efficiency of jet engine is__________________?
A. higher at ground
B. higher at high altitudes
C. same at all altitudes
D. higher at high speed
E. lower at low speed
For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more advantageous to use____________________?
A. turbo-jet engine
B. ram-jet engine
C. propellers
D. rockets
E. hydraulic jet propulsion
The compression ratio in a jet engine varies proportional to ____________________?
A. speed
B. speed
C. altitude
D. Vspeed
E. does not Vary
The efficiency and work ratio of a gas turbine plant can be increased by _____________________?
A. using mulit-stage compressor with mfercooler
B. adding heat exchanger
C. injecting water in/around combustion chamber
D. reheating the air after partial expansion in the turbine
E. all of the above
Turbofan engine employs ____________________ ?
A. one air stream
B. two or more air streams
C. no air stream
D. solid fuel firing
E. rocket principle for its operation
Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for genrating a given amount of power__________________?
A. steam power plant
B. petrol engine
C. diesel engine’
D. solar plant
E. gas turbine plant
Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of ____________________?
A. compressor pressure ratio
B. highest pressure to exhaust pressure
C. inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
D. pressures across the turbine
E. none of the above
In turbo fan engine, the jet velocity as compared to turbo-jet engine is_________________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depening upon speed
E. none of the above
A simple turbo-jet engine is basically_________________?
A. a propeller system
B. gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
C. chemical rocket regine
D. ram-jet enigne
E. none of the above
Ram-jet engine__________________?
A. is self-operating at zero flight speed
B. is not self-operating at zero^flight speed
C. requires no air for its operation
D. produces a jet consisting of plasma
E. none of the above
The compression ratio in a gas turbine is of the roder of____________________?
A. 3.5 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 8 : 1
D. 12 : 1
E. 20 : 1
The working fluid in ai turbine is___________________?
A. in two phases
B. in three phases
C. in a single phase
D. in the form of air and water mixture
E. gas and no air
If V, U and Vr represent the absolute velocity of fluid, velocity of blade, and relative velocity of fluid, and suffix i and o stand for entry and exit conditions, then in a rotary machine whose degree of reaction is unity______________?
A. Vi=V0B
B. Vt>V0
C. U,<V0
D. V,= U0
E. Vri=Vm
In jet engines the products of combustion after passing through the gas lurbine are discharged into_______________?
A. atmosphere
B. back to the compressor
C. discharge nozzle
D. vacuum
E. none of the above
A file removes the metal during___________________?
A. both forward and return strokes
B. forward stroke
C. return stroke
D. none of these
In a _____________ , both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram?
A. progressive die
B. simple die
C. compound die
D. combination die
A neutral flame is obtained by supplying___________________?
A. more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen
B. equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
C. more volume of oxygen and less volume of acetylene
D. none of the above
The cold working of metals is carried out_________________?
A. below the recrystallisation temperature
B. at the recrystallisation temperature
C. at any temperature
D. above the recrystallisation temperature
Lancing is the operation of _________________?
A. cutting a sheet of metal through part of its length and then bending the cut portion
B. removal of metal to the desired shape from the edge of a plate
C. cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length
D. bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis
In spot welding, the spacing between two spot weld should not be less than _______________?
A. d
B. 1.5d
C. 3d
D. 6d
The shrinkage allowance for cast iron pattern is________________?
A. 15 mm/m
B. 20 mm/m
C. 26 mm/m
D. 10 mm/m
Tandem drawing of wires and tubes is necessary because_________________?
A. accuracy in dimensions is not possible otherwise
B. surface finish improves after every drawing stage
C. it is not possible to reduce at one stage
D. annealing is needed between stages
The operation of straightening a curved sheet metal, is known as____________________?
A. squeezing
B. coining
C. planishing
D. drawing
For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be____________________?
A. closed
B. open
C. depends on starting condition and flow desired
D. could be either open or closed
E. partly open and partly closed
Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve __________________?
A. kept fully closed
B. kept fully open
C. irrespective of any position
D. kept 50% open
E. none of the above
When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and very little pipe friction, the pump characteristics should be _________________?
A. horizontal
B. nearly horizontal
C. steep
D. first rise and then fall
E. none of the above
Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain___________________?
A. high discharge
B. high head
C. pumping of viscous fluids
D. high head and high discharge
E. high efficiency
In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed, the capacity rating is to be slightly lowered. It can be done by_______________?
A. designing new impeller
B. trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining
C. not possible
D. some other alterations in the impeller
E. none of the above
One horsepower is equal to_________________?
A. 102 watts
B. 75 watts
C. 550 watts
D. 736 watts
E. 33000 watts
Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve________________?
A. kept fully closed
B. kept fully open
C. irrespective of any position
D. kept 50% open
E. none of the above
Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on___________________?
A. impeller diameter
B. speed
C. fluid density
D. type of casing
E. A. and B. above
In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the_______________?
A. radial
B. radial
C. centrifugal
D. rectilinear
E. vortex
Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial applications (in comparison to centrifugal pumps) because of____________________?
A. high initial and maintenance cost
B. lower discharge
C. lower speed of operation
D. necessity of air vessel
E. all of the above
The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are__________________?
A. straight
B. bent forward
C. bent backward
D. bent forward first and then backward
E. bent backward first and then forward
When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and very little of vertical lift, then pump characteristics should be__________________?
A. horizontal
B. nearly horizontal
C. steep
D. first rise and then fall
E. none of the above
If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at a constant total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity nearly same as of water would discharge_____________________?
A. same quantity of liquid
B. 0.75 Q
C. Q/0.75
D. 1.5 Q
E. none of the above
The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump impeller is_________________?
A. 10-15°
B. 20-25°
C. 30-40°
D. 50-60°
E. 80-90°.
In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the blades are_________________?
A. straight
B. bent forward
C. bent backward
D. radial
E. given aerofoil section
In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump__________________?
A. at the top
B. at the bottom
C. at the center
D. from sides
E. none of the above
Low specific speed of a pump implies it is____________________?
A. centrifugal pump
B. mixed flow pump
C. axial flow pump
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is preferred_____________________?
A. centrifugal
B. axial flow
C. mixed flow
D. propeller
E. reciprocating
The horse power required in above case will be___________________?
A. same
B. 0.75 B.H.P.
C. B.H.P./0.75
D. 1.5 B.H.P.
E. none of the above
Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an example of____________________?
A. rotational flow
B. radial
C. forced spiral vortex flow
D. forced cylindrical vortex flow
E. spiral vortex flow
Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is_________________?
A. centrifugal pump
B. mixed flow pump
C. axial flow pump
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between________________?
A. flow vs swept volume
B. pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
C. flow vs speed
D. pressure vs speed
E. swept volume vs speed
Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter on turbine______________?
A. net head
B. absolute velocity
C. blade velocity
D. flow
E. relative velocity of flow at inlet
The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse turbine without jet interference is________________?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
E. 16.
High specific speed of turbine implies it is__________________?
A. propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. impulse turbine
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize________________?
A. friction loss
B. cavitation
C. static head
D. loss of kinetic energy
E. starting time
Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade design is defined as the angle between_________________?
A. lift and resultant force
B. drag and resultant force
C. lift and tangential force
D. lift and drag
E. resultant force and tangential force
The flow rate in gear pump___________________?
A. increases with increase in pressure
B. decreases with increase in pressure
C. more or less remains constant with in-crease in pressure
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
Reaction turbines are used for____________________?
A. low head
B. high head
C. high head and low discharge
D. high head and high discharge
E. low head and high discharge
The angle of taper on draft tube is A. greater than 15° B. greater than 8° C. greater than 5° D. less than 8° E. less than 3°.___________________?
The angle of taper on draft tube is
A. greater than 15°
B. greater than 8°
C. greater than 5°
D. less than 8°
E. less than 3°.
In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as follows________________?
A. radially, axially
B. axially, radially
C. axially, axially
D. radially, radially
E. combination of axial and radial
Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to__________________?
A. smoothen flow
B. reduce acceleration to minimum
C. increase pump efficiency
D. save pump from cavitation
E. increase pump head
According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the pressure and power vary_____________________?
A. directly as the air or gas density
B. inversely as square root of density
C. inversely as density
D. as square of density
E. as square root of density
Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when ___________________?
A. waste valve closes suddenly
B. supply pipe is long
C. supply pipe is short
D. ram chamber is large
E. supply pipe has critical diameter
A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of __________________?
A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
B. a cylinder and a ram
C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders
D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
E. special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator
Hydraulic accumulator is used for____________________?
A. accumulating oil
B. supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
C. generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
D. supplying energy when main supply fails
E. accumulating hydraulic energy
Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump_______________?
A. discharge a diameter
B. head a speed2
C. head a diameter
D. Power a speed3
E. none of the above is wrong

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double acting reciprocating pump is of the order of_______________?
A. 39.2%
B. 49.2%
C. 68.8%
D. 84.8%
E. 91.6%.
A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of________________?
A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
B. a cylinder and a ram
C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders
D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
E. special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator
According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed, capacity and pressure vary________________?
A. directly as the air or gas density
B. inversely as square root of density
C. inversely as density
D. as square of density
E. as square root of density
According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel diameters, the power demand varies_______________?
A. directly as fan speed
B. square of fan speed
C. cube of fan speed
D. square root of fan speed
E. none of the above
According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity and power vary_________________?
A. directly as the air or gas density
B. inversely as square root of density
C. inversely as density
D. as square of density
E. as square root of density
Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to____________________?
A. ratio of diameters
B. square of ratio of diameters
C. inverse ratio of diameters
D. square of inverse ratio of diameters
E. fourth power of ratio of diameters
According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the pressure varies________________?
A. directly as fan speed
B. square of fan speed
C. cube of fan speed
D. square root of fan speed
E. none of the above
Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single acting reciprocating pump is of the order of__________________?
A. 39.2%
B. 49.2%
C. 68.8%
D. 84.8%
E. 91.6%.
According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the air or gas capacity varies______________________?
A. directly as fan speed
B. square of fan speed
C. cube of fan speed
D. square root of fan speed
E. none of the above
Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for cavitation __________________?
A. inlet of draft rube
B. blade inlet
C. guide blade
D. penstock
E. draft tube exit
Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from___________________?
A. 0 to 4.5
B. 10 to 100
C. 80 to 200
D. 250 to 300
E. none of the above
The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit speed____________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases
Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of___________________?
A. Impulse turbines
B. Reaction turbines
C. Axial flow turbines
D. Mixed flow turbines
E. Reaction-cum-impulse turbines
Francis turbine is best suited for_____________________?
A. medium head application from 24 to 180 m
B. low head installation up to 30 m
C. high head installation above 180 m
D. all types of heads
E. none of the above
Impulse turbine is generally fitted______________________?
A. at the level of tail race
B. little above the tail race
C. slightly below the tail race
D. about 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitation
E. about 2.5 m below the tail race to avoid cavitation
In reaction turbine, draft tube is used_____________________?
A. to transport water downstream without eddies
B. to convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion of the flow cross-section
C. for safety of turbine
D. to increase flow rate
E. none of the above
A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped additionally with_________________?
A. adjustable blades
B. backward curved blades
C. vaned diffusion casing
D. inlet guide blades
E. totally submerged operation facility
The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit___________________?
A. of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit head
B. of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit power
C. of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head
D. of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head
E. none of the above
Medium specific speea of turbine implies it is___________________?
A. propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. impulse turbine
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is_________________?
A. full load speed
B. the speed at which turbine runner will be damaged
C. the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open
D. the speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible
E. none of the above.
Low specific speed of turbine implies it is__________________?
A. propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. impulse turbine
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
High specific speed of a pump implies it is_____________________?
A. centrifugal pump
B. mixed flow pump
C. axial flow pump
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control and irrigation applications, following type of pump is preferred_________________?
A. centrifugal
B. axial flow
C. reciprocating
D. mixed flow
E. none of the above
In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is___________________?
A. rectilinear flow
B. radial flow
C. free vortex motion
D. forced vortex
E. none of the above
Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the numbers of_________________?
A. protons in the nucleus
B. electrons in me nucleus
C. neutrons in the nucleus
D. electrons in the atom
E. neutrons in the atom
Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope_________________?
A. mass number
B. atomic number
C. chemical properties
D. position in periodic table
E. all of the above
A nuclear unit becoming critical means_______________?
A. it is generating power to rated capacity
B. it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
C. there is danger of nuclear spread
D. chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established
E. it generates no heat
The total energy released in fission of U is__________________?
A. 5 MeV
B. 10 MeV
C. 199 MeV
D. 168 MeV
E. 11 MeV
Boiling water reactor employs__________________?
A. boiler
B. direct cycle of coolant system
C. double circuit system of coolant cycle
D. multi pass system
E. single circuit system
One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately____________________?
A. 1 tonne of high grade coal
B. 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
C. 10 tonnes of high grade coal
D. 100 tonnes of high grade coal
E. 1000 tonnes of high grade coal
Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of_____________________?
A. unity
B. more than unity
C. less than unity
D. zero
E. infinity
Fast breeder reactor uses___________________?
A. boiler
B. direct cycle of coolant system
C. double circuit system of coolant cycle
D. multi pass system
E. single circuit system
Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat exchanger for generation of steam____________________?
A. gas cooled
B. liquid metal cooled
C. pressurised water
D. boiling water
E. none of the above
The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparsion to a conventional thermal power plant is________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. may be less or mote depending on size
E. unpredictable
Isotopes of same elements have___________________?
A. same atomic number and different masses
B. same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
C. different masses and different atomic numbers
D. different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
E. same chemical properties and same atomic numbers
Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are________________?
A. U233andPu239
B. U23iandPu233
C. U235andPu235
D. U238andPu239
E. U243andPu235
The nuclear energy is measured as__________________?
A. MeV
B. curie
C. farads
D. MW
E. kWhr
Moderator in nuclear plants is used to__________________?
A. reduce temperature
B. extract heat from nuclear reaction
C. control the reaction
D. cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
E. moderate the radioactive pollution
The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is___________________?
A. heavy water
B. concrete and bricks
C. graphite and concrete
D. deutrium
E. graphite
The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection against_______________?
A. X-rays
B. infra-red rays
C. a, P, and y rays
D. neutrons and gamma rays
E. electrons
Which of the following are ferrite materials__________________?
A. U233andPu239
B. U
C. U238andPu239
D. U238andTh239
E. none of the above
Enriched uranium is one in which__________________?
A. %age of U235 has been artificially in-creased
B. %age of U has been artificially increased
C. %age of U234 has been artificially in-creased
D. extra energy is pumped from outside
E. all impurities have been removed
Which of the following is the heaviest________________?
A. neutron
B. proton
C. atom
D. electron
E. nucleus
The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as compared to fast breeder reactor is________________?
A. same
B. lower
C. higher
D. unity
E. higher/lower depending on the size of reactor
A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV___________________?
A. 20
B. 200
C. 2000
D. 20,000
E. 2 x 105
The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as_________________?
A. splitting
B. fission
C. fusion
D. disintegration
E. chain reaction
The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator__________________?
A. demineralised water
B. carbon dioxide
C. heavy water
D. graphite
E. no moderator is used
The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total number of___________________?
A. protons and neutrons in an atom
B. protons and electrons in an atom
C. neutrons and electrons in an atom
D. protons and neutrons in a nucleus
E. protons and electrons in a nucleus
A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared to neutron binding energy of the atoms is_________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above
Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and coolant____________________?
A. graphite, C02
B. graphite, air
C. heavy water, C02
D. lead, H2
E. concrete, N2
In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases_______________?
A. no new neutron
B. at least one new neutron
C. one new neutron
D. more than one new neutrons
E. many-fold neutrons
Which of the following particles is the lightest__________________?
A. nucleus
B. electron
C. proton
D. meson
E. neutron
In fast breeder reactors___________________?
A. any type of moderator can be used
B. graphite is used as the moderator
C. heavy water is used as the moderator
D. moderator may or may not be used
E. moderator is dispensed with
Ferrite material is____________________?
A. the most fissionable material
B. the basic fuel for nuclear paints
C. basic raw material for nuclear plants
D. the material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous changes leading to the formation of fissionable material
E. none of the above
The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the emission of a neutron is________________?
A. 1 MeV
B. 2.4 MeV
C. 4.3 MeV
D. 7.8 MeV
E. 20 MeV
The commonly used material for shielding is__________________?
A. lead or concrete
B. lead and tin
C. graphite or cadmium
D. thick galvanised sheets
E. black carbon papers
Reflector in nuclear plants is used to________________?
A. return the neutrons back into the core
B. shield the radioactivity completely
C. check polllution
D. conserve energy
E. is not used
The number of isotopes of hydrogen are _________________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. U
C. 3
E. 0
The nuclear power plant at Tarapur has the following reactor________________?
A. fast breeder
B. pressurised water
C. boiling water
D. sodium graphite
E. none of the above
Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be__________________ ?
A. maximum in center and zero at side
B. maximum at side and zero in center
C. uniform throughout
D. zero throughout
E. none of the above
U238 will undergo fission by_________________?
A. high energy (fast) neutrons alone
B. low energy (slow) neutrons alone
C. either fast or slow neutrons
D. medium energy neutrons
E. none of the above
Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid________________?
A. ordinary fluid
B. heavy water
C. molten lead
D. hydrogen gas
E. none of the above
The first unclear power plant in India is located at____________________?
A. Kota
B. Kalapakkam
C. Tarapur
D. Baraeilly
E. Kerala
U235 will undergo fission by__________________?
A. high energy (fast) neutrons alone
B. low energy (slow) neutrons alone
C. either fast or slow neutrons
D. medium energy neutrons
E. none of the above
Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to C02 because former_____________________?
A. is lighter
B. is inert
C. has high specific heat
D. is a good conductor
E. all of the above
The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with following reactor___________________?
A. pressurised water
B. boiling water
C. gas cooled
D. liquid metal cooled
E. all of the above.
Electron-volt is the unit of________________?
A. atomic power
B. energy
C. voltage
D. radio activity
E. there is no such unit.
A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile isotopes is called____________________?
A. regenerative reactor
B. fast breeder reactor
C. breeder reactor
D. boiling water reactor
E. ferrite reactor
Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of__________________?
A. 1-99%
B. 1-25%
C. 1-50%
D. 1-75%
E. 1-90%.
Natural uranium is made up of__________________?
A. 99.282% U238, 0.712% U235, 0.006% U234
B. 99.282% U235, 0.712% U238, 0.06%’ U234
C. 99.282% U234, 0.712% U238, 0.006% U235
D. 99.282% U235, 0.712% U234, 0.006% U238
E. none of the above
Plutonium is produced________________?
A. as basic raw material
B. by neutron irradiation of Uz
C. by neutron irradiation of throium
D. artificially
E. in high capacity furnace
Uranium-233 is produced__________________?
A. as basic raw material
B. by neutron irradiation of Uz
C. by neutron irradiation of thorium
D. artificially
E. in high capacity furnaces
The unit of radio-activity is_____________?
A. electron-volt
B. electron-ampere
C. curie
D. MeV
E. AMU
Pick up the wrong statement Fast breeder reactors__________________?
A. operate at extremely high power densities.
B. are liquid-metal cooled
C. produce more fuel than they consume
D. are unmoderated
E. use water as coolant
Plutonium-239 is produced__________________?
A. as basic raw material
B. by neutron irradiation of IT*
C. by neutron irradiation of thorium
D. artificially
E. in high capacity furnaces
Which of the following is the primary fuel________________?
A. Ulii
B. U
C. U238
D. Pu:
E. Pu
Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant________________?
A. light or heavy water
B. molten lead
C. carbon dioxide
D. freon
E. carbon tetrachloride
In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is_________________?
A. at the lower rate than the consumption
B. at a higher rate than the constuption
C. at an equal rate of the consumption
D. depends on other considerations
E. unpredictable
When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons is_________________?
A. infinite
B. zero
C. exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
D. initiated
E. stopped
Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for_______________?
A. natural uranium
B. enriched uranium
C. pure uranium
D. any type of uranium
E. none of the above
Solid- fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various small shapes such as___________________?
A. plates
B. pallets
C. pins
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above
Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator. One which_________________?
A. does not absorb neutrons
B. absorbs neutrons
C. accelerates neutrons
D. eats up neutrons
E. regenerates neutrons
In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable_________________?
A. fast moving
B. slow moving
C. critical neutrons
D. neutrons at rest
E. none of the above
In a fission process, maximum %age of energy is released as___________________?
A. kinetic energy of neutrons
B. kinetic energy of fission products
C. instantaneous release of gamma rays
D. gradual readioactive decay of fission products
E. none of the above
The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield_________________?
A. alpha particles
B. beta particles
C. thermal neutrons
D. fast neutrons and gamma rays
E. none of the above
In order to have constant clain reaction to produce a constant rate of heat output, the value of ratio of the number of neutrons in one generation to the number of neutrons in the immediately preceding generation must be________________?
A. greater than 1.0
B. less than 1.0
C. equal to zero
D. equal to 1.0
E. equal to infinity
A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by________________?
A. slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz fission continues by slow motion neutrons
B. accelerating fast neutrons
C. absorbing all neutrons
D. using moderator
E. enriching U235
The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be________________?
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. zero
E. negative, i.e. fuel would be generated
The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to conventional and nuclear consideration is__________________?
A. higher cost of nuclear fuel
B. high initial cost
C. high heat rejection in condenser
D. lower temperature and pressure condi-tions
E. nuclear hazard risk
The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in___________________?
A. increased production of neutrons
B. complete absorption of neutrons
C. controlled production of neutrons
D. decreased leakage of neutrons
E. decrease of speed of neutrons
The most practical fuel for a thermo-nuclear reactor, both from econocical and nuclear consideration is____________________?
A. plutonium
B. uranium
C. deuterium
D. thorium
E. lithium
The coolant used in boiling water reactor is________________?
A. Co2
B. pressurised water
C. mixture of water and steam
D. liquid metal
E. mercury
Effective moderators are those materials which contain____________________?
A. light weight atoms
B. heavy weight atoms
C. critical atoms
D. zero weight atoms
E. there is no such criterion
A fast breeder reactor uses_______________?
A. 90% U-235
B. U-238
C. U-235
D. Pu-239
E. U-239
Pressurised water reactor is designed________________?
A. for boiling pi water in the core
B. to use liquid sodium metal as coolant
C. to use intermediate coolant
D. to prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
E. to eliminate the coolant loop of the pressurised water
In boiling water reactor, moderator is__________________?
A. coolant itself
B. ferrite rod
C. graphite rod
D. liquid sodium metal
E. blanket of thorium
Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required for half of the following to decay__________________?
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. nulceus
E. atom
Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in________________?
A. power generation
B. nucleonic devices
C. nuclear fission
D. nuclear fusion
E. medical field
A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel_________________?
A. enriched uranium
B. plutonium
C. thorium
D. U235
E. natrual uranium
A fast breeder reactor__________________?
A. uses graphite rods as moderator
B. has powerful moderator
C. has no moderator
D. uses ferrite material as moderator
E. uses pressurised water as moderator
Each fission of U235 produces following number of fast neutrons per fission________________?
A. 1 neutron
B. 1 — neutrons
C. 1 – 2 neutrons
D. 2 — neutrons
E. infinite
For economical operation of a nuclear plant__________________?
A. used fuel should be reprocessed
B. moderator should be used
C. coolant should be employed
D. control rods should be used
E. reflector should be used
In nuclear fission___________________?
A. the original elements change into completely different elements
B
. the electrons of the element change
C. the molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
D. none of the above
A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel________________?
A. enriched uranium
B. plutonium
C. thorium
D. U
E. natural uranium.
Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled reactor for circulation of liquid metal_________________?
A. centrifugal
B. axial
C. reciprocation
D. electromagnetic
E. diaphragm
Heat transfer takes place as per ________________?
A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. first law of thermodynamic
C. second law of the thermodynamics
D. Kirchoff’s law E. Stefan’s law
When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by __________________?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation
Heat is closely related with___________________?
A. liquids
B. energy
C. temperature
D. entropy
E. enthalpy
The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would_________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of insulation
E. none of the above
Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature __________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. unpredictable
Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is ___________________?
A. kcal/kg m2 °C
B. kcal-m/hr m2 °C
C. kcal/hr m2 °C
D. kcal-m/hr °C
E. kcal-m/m2 °C
When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by ___________________?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation
Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally___________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. unpredictable
Sensible heat is the heat required to __________________?
A. change vapour into liquid
B. change liquid into vapour
C. increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
D. convert water into steam and superheat it
E. convert saturated steam into dry steam
When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by __________________?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. scattering
E. convection and radiation
Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is__________________? 
A. J/m2 sec
B. J/m °K sec
C. W/m °K
D. A. and C. above
E. B. and C. above
Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by_____________________? 
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation
Heat flowing from one side to other depends directly on ___________________?
Pick up the wrong case?
A. face area
B. time
C. thickness
D. temperature difference
E. thermal conductivity
Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation ___________________?
A. blast furnace
B. heating of building
C. cooling of parts in furnace
D. heat received by a person from fireplace
E. all of the above
Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer ___________________?
A. I.C. engine
B. air preheaters
C. heating of building in winter
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature ____________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. none of the above
Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by ____________________?
A. thermometer
B. radiatiouv pyrometer
C. thermistor
D. thermocouple
E. thermopile
Metals are good conductors of heat because________________?
A. their atoms collide frequently
B. their atoms-are relatively far apart
C. they contain free electrons
D. they have high density
E. all of the above
Cork is a good insulator because it has___________________?
A. free electrons
B. atoms colliding frequency
C. low density
D. porous body
E. all of the above
Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of__________________?
A. 0.002
B. 0.02
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
E. 0.5
Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature__________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. none of the above
Total heat is the heat required to__________________?
A. change vapour into liquid
B. change liquid into vapour
C. increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
D. convert water into steam and superheat it
E. convert saturated steam into dry steam
Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of_____________________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.23
C. 0.42
D. 0.51
E. 0.64
The time constant of a thermocouple is_______________?
A. the time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured
B. the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference
C. the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference
D. determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
E. none of the above
In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by ________________?
A. hr (time)
B. sqm (area)
C. °C (temperature)
D. cm (thickness)
E. kcal (heat).
Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity_______________?
A. steam
B. solid ice
C. melting ice
D. water
E. boiling water

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the________________?
A. quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces ^re maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
B. quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area one cm square, thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1°C
C. heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a temperature difference of unity is maintained between opposite faces
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction, convection and radiation in _________________?
A. electric heater
B. steam condenser
C. melting of ice
D. refrigerator condenser coils
E. boiler
The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their thermal conductivities as ATj – 2K2 will be ________________?
A. I
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 0.25
E. 4.0
Thermal diffusivity of a substance is ____________________?
A. proportional of thermal conductivity
B. inversely proportional to k
C. proportional to (k)
D. inversely proportional to k2
E. none of the above
According to Prevost theory of heat exchange ___________________?
A. it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t high temperature source
B. heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
C. all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of conduction, convection and radiation
E. rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperature difference
Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in ________________ ?
A. composition
B. density
C. porosity
D. structure
E. all of the above
Which of the following has least value of conductivity_________________?
A. glass
B. water
C. plastic
D. rubber
E. air
Heat flows from one body to other when they have_________________?
A. different heat contents
B. different specific heat
C. different atomic structure
D. different temperatures
E. none of the above
The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is_______________?
A. directly proportional to the surface area of the body
B. directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the body
C. dependent upon the material of the body
D. inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
E. all of the above
Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity________________?
A. aluminium
B. steel
C. brass
D. copper
E. lead
Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon___________________?
A. its temperature
B. nature of the body
C. kind and extent of its surface
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by __________________ ?
A. high thickness of insulation
B. high vapour pressure
C. less thermal conductivity insulator
D. a vapour seal
E. all of the above
Thermal diffusivity is ____________________?
A. a dimensionless parameter
B. function of temperature
C. used as mathematical model
D. a physical property of the material
E. useful in case of heat transfer by radiation
Thermal conductivity of wood depends on_______________?
A. moisture
B. density
C. temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube________________?
A. Equivalent thickness of film
B. Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscocity
C. Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity
D. Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermalconductivity
E. none of the above
Unit of thermal diffusivity is_________________?
A. m2/hr
B. m2/hr°C
C. kcal/m2 hr
D. kcal/m.hr°C
E. kcal/m2 hr°C
In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow may be turbulent, a laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film takes place by___________________?
A. convection
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. both convection and conduction
E. none of the above
The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle, along a normal to the surface, is known as ________________?
A. emissivity
B. transmissivity
C. reflectivity
D. intensity of radiation
E. absorptivity
A grey body is one whose absorptivity_________________?
A. varies with temperature
B. varies with wavelength of the incident ray
C. is equal to its emissivity
D. does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident ray
E. none of the above
Heat conducted througfi unit area and unit thick face per unit time when temperature difference between opposite faces is unity,is called__________________?
A. thermal resistance
B. thermal coefficient
C. temperature gradient
D. thermal conductivity
E. heat-transfer
Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are heated to same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to smaller one will be in the ratio of____________________?
A. 1 :1
B. 2: 1
C. 1 : 2
D. 4 : 1
E. 1 : 4
Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is________________?
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends upon the shape of body
E. none of the above
A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is________________?
A. Grashoff number
B. Nusselt number
C. Weber number
D. Prandtl number
E. Reynold number
In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures of________________?
A. cold water inlet and outlet
B. hot medium inlet and outlet
C. hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
D. hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
E. none of the above
A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each other . For best results__________________?
A. better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
B. inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
C. both may be put in any order
D. whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend on steam temperature
E. unpredictable
According of Kirchhoff’s law______________________?
A. radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature
B. emissive power depends on temperature
C. emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
D. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectly black body
E. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body
LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow heat exchanger is _________________?
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on the area of heat exchanger
E. depends on temperature conditions
Fourier’s law of heat conduction is valid for_________________?
A. one dimensional cases only
B. two dimensional cases only
C. three dimensional cases only
D. regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
E. irregular surfaces
In counter flow heat exchangers_________________?
A. both the fluids at inlet (of heat ex¬changer where hot fluid enters) are in their coldest state
B. both the fluids at inlet are in their hot¬test state
C. both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
D. one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
E. any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger
The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat transfer by________________?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation
Joule sec is the unit of_________________?
A. universal gas constant
B. kinematic viscosity
C. thermal conductivity
D. Planck’s constant
E. none of the above
According to Kirchoff’s law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for all bodies is equal to the emissive power of a _________________?
A. grey body
B. brilliant white polished body
C. red hot body
D. black body
E. none of the above
All radiations in a black body are___________________?
A. reflected
B. refracted
C. transmitted
D. absorbed
E. partly reflected and partly absorbed
The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is___________________?
A. kcal/m2
B. kcal/hr °C
C. kcal/m2 hr °C
D. kacl/m hr °C
E. kcal/m3 hr °C
The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by ___________________?
A. Wien’s law
B. Planck’s law
C. Stefan’s law
D. Fourier’s law
E. Kirchhoff’s law
Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is___________________?
A. same
B. higher
C. more or less same
D. very much lower
E. very much higher
The value of Prandtl number for air is about _______________________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.7
D. 1.7
E. 10.5
The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is largely in the range of ___________________?
A. shorter wavelength
B. longer wavelength
C. remains same at all wavelengths
D. wavelength has nothing to do with it
E. none of the above
Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in temperature ________________?
A. thermal conductivity
B. thermal diffusivity
C. density
D. dynamic viscosity
E. kuiematic viscosity
In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of________________?
A. Grashoff no. and Reynold no
B. Grashoff no and Prandtl no.
C. Prandtl no. and Reynold no
D. Grashoff no., Prandtl no and Reynold no
E. none of the above
According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a rate proportional to___________________?
A. absolute temperature
B. square of temperature
C. fourth power of absolute temperature
D. fourth power of temperature
E. cube of absolute temperature
Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to parallel flow will be________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
E. none of the above
The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is ____________________?
A. watt/cm2 °K
B. watt/cm4 °K
C. watt2/cm °K4
D. watt/cm2 °K4
E. watt/cm2 °K2
Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by __________________?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and radiation combined
E. convection and radiation combined
Thermal diffusivity of a substance is __________________?
A. directly proportional to thermal con¬ductivity
B. inversely proportional to density of substance
C. inversely proportional to specific heat
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally_____________________?
A. more than those for liquids
B. less than those for liquids
C. more than those for solids
D. dependent on the viscosity
E. same as for the liquids
A grey body is one whose absorptivity _________________?
A. varies with temperature
B. varies with the wave length of incident ray
C. varies with both
D. does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
E. there is no such criterion
Planck’s law holds good for________________?
A. black bodies
B. polished bodies
C. all coloured bodies
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
A perfect black body is one which_______________?
A. is black in colour
B. reflects all heat
C. transmits all heat radiations
D. abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
E. fully opaque
If the temperature of a solid surface changes form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissive power changes in the ratio of___________________?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 27
E. 81
In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by___________________?
A. direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
B. a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
C. flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
D. generation of heat again and again
E. indirect transfer
Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heat transfer will take place mainly by ___________________?
A. convection
B. free convection
C. forced convection
D. radiation
E. radiation and convection
Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when________________?
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,x = 0,anda = 0
C. p = 0, T= l,anda = 0
D. X = 0, a + p = 1
E. a = 0,x + p= 1
Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity___________________?
A. at all temperatures
B. at one particular temperature
C. when system is under thermal equi-librium
D. at critical temperature
E. for a polished body
The amount of radiation mainly depends on___________________?
A. nature of body
B. temperature of body
C. type of surface of body
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called_________________?
A. absorptive power
B. emissive power
C. absorptivity
D. emissivity
E. none of the above
The emissive power of a body depends upon its___________________?
A. temperature
B. wave length
C. physical nature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected back. If the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is____________________?
A. 0.45
B. 0.55
C. 0.40
D. 0.75
E. 0.60
The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black body per unit_______________?
A. temperature
B. thickness
C. area
D. time
E. area and time
Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when_________________?
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p= l,T = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x = 0, a + p = 0
E. a = 0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity
According to Stefan’s law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is proportional to____________________?
A. absolute temperature
B. T2
C. T5
D. t
E. l/T
The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally__________________?
A. less than those for gases
B. jess than those for liquids
C. more than those for liquids and gases
D. more or less same as for liquids and gases
E. zerci
The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as_________________?
A. Krichoff’s law
B. Stefan’s law
C. Wien’ law
D. Planck’s law
E. Black body law
Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when_________________?
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,T = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x = 0, a + p = 1
E. a = 0, x + p = 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when _________________?
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,x = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x – 0, a + p = 1
E. a=0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity
According to Wien’s law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is proportion to ________________?
A. absolute temperature (T)
B. I2
C. f
D. t
E. 1/r
The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is_______________?
A. newton
B. pascal
C. kilogram meter
D. watt
E. joule
Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in________________?
A. one point
B. two points
C. plane
D. perpendicular planes
E. different planes
Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?
A. if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
B. if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
C. if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
D. if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
E. none of the above.
If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible _____________________?
A. not a replace them by a single force
B. to replace them by a single force
C. to replace them by a single force through C.G.
D. to replace them by a couple
E. to replace them by a couple and a force
A force is completely defined when we specify_______________?
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. point of application
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Effect of a force on a body depends upon ________________?
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. position or line of action
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
A force acting on a body may_________________?
A. introduce internal stresses
B. balance the other forces acting on it
C. retard its motion
D. change its motion
E. all of the above
The unit of force in S.I. units is________________?
A. kilogram
B. newton
C. watt
D. dyne
E. joule
Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in __________________?
A. one point
B. one plane
C. different planes
D. perpendicular planes
E. different points
Which of the following statement is wrong ?
A. The mortise gauge has two scribing pins
B. The gouges are chisels with a hollow shaped blade
C. An auger is a planning tool
D. all of these
Pick up the wrong statement?
A. In a heterogeneous or solid-fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular pattern within moderator.
B. Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
C. Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
D. Fast reactor uses moderator
E. Most serious drawback in using water as coolant in nuclear plants is its high vapour pressure
Pick up the false statement ?
A. gas turbine is a self-starting unit
B. gas turbine does not require huge quantity of water like steam plant
C. exhaust losses in gas turbine are high due to large mass flow rate
D. overall efficiency of gas turbine plant is lower than that of a reciprocating engine
E. gas turbine can be easily started and stopped and thus is best suited for peaking demands
Pick up the correct statement?
A. closed cycle gas turbine is an I.C engine
B. gas turbine uses same working fluid over and over again
C. air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine is 100 : 1
D. ideal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant is more than carnot cycle efficiency
E. thrust in turbo-jet is produced by nozzle exit gases
Pick up the wrong statement ?
A. pulsojet requires no ambient air for propulsion
B. ramjet-engine has no turbine
C. turbine drives compressor in a burbojet
D. bypass turbo-jet engine increases the thrust without adversely affecting, the propulsive efficiency and fuel economy
E. propeller is an indirect reaction device
Pick up the correct statement ?
A. large gas turbines use radial inflow turbines
B. gas turbines have their blades similar to steam turbine
C. gas .turbine’s blade will appear as impulse section at the hub and as a reaction section at tip
D. gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
E. all of the above are correct.
Choose the correct statement ________________?
A. gas turbine requires lot of cooling water
B. gas turbine is capable of rapid start up and loading
C. gas turbines have flat efficiency at part loads
D. gas turbines have high standby losses and require lot of maintenance
E. gas turbines can be used to generate power only
Pick up the wrong statement ?
A. large gas turbines employ axial flow compressors
B. axial flow compressors are more stable than centrifugal type compressors but not as efficient
C. axial flow compressors have high capacity and efficiency
D. axial flow compressors have instability region of operation
E. centrifugal compressors are used mainly on low flow pressure ratio gas turbines
Pick up the correct statement ?
A. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economise on fuel
B. gas turhine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
C. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust required
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Pick up the wrong statement ?
A. centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically constant pressure over a considerable range of capacities
B. Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially constant delivery at variable pressures
C. centrifugal compressors have a wider stable operating range than axial flow compressors
D. axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter compared to centrifugal type
E. axial flow compressors apt to be longer as compared to centrifugal type
Which of the following is secondary fuel ?
A. Th232andU238
B. U233andPu239
C. U233andPu238
D. non oh these
Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is___________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
E. has no correlation
Limiting force of friction is the__________________?
A. tangent of angle between normal-reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. minimum force of friction
Tangent of angle of friction is equal to__________________?
A. kinetic friction
B. limiting friction
C. angle of repose
D. coefficient of friction
E. friction force
A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and horizontal surface is \i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will____________________?
A. remain horizontal
B. slant up towards direction of pull
C. slant down towards direction of pull
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is_________________?
A. equal to the moment of the couple
B. constant
C. both of above are correct
D. both of above are wrong
E. none of the above
The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be_________________?
A. coplanar
B. meet at one point ;
C. both A. and B. above
D. all be equal
E. something else
A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal meter run will take the following shape________________?
A. straight line
B. parabola
C. hyperbola
D. elliptical
E. part of a circle
In actual machines_______________?
A. mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
B. mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
C. mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D. mechanical advantage is unity
E. none of the above
In ideal machines__________________?
A. mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
B. mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
C. mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D. mechanical advantage is unity
E. none of the above
The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to move down is known as angle of_______________?
A. friction
B. limiting friction
C. repose
D. kinematic friction
E. static friction
The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis is__________________?
A. same
B. double
C. half
D. four times
E. one fourth
The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a__________________?
A. right angled triangle
B. equilateral triangle
C. square
D. circle
E. rectangle
The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the base______________?
A. h/2
B. J/3
C. h/6
D. h/4
E. 3/i/5
A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which is correct statement about density of metal_________________?
A. density of metal can’t be determined
B. metal is twice as dense as water
C. metal will float in water
D. metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
E. none of the above
Which of the following is not the unit of energy_________________?
A. kg m
B. kcal
C. wattr
D. watt hours
E. kg m x (m/sec)2
The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r________________?
A. at distance — from the plane base 3r
B. at distance — from the plane base 3r
C. at distance — from the plane base 3r
D. at distance — from the plane base or
E. at distance — from the plane base
Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one___________________?
A. ellipse
B. hyperbola
C. parabola
D. circle
E. none of the above
A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly_________________?
A. 38 m
B. 62.5 m
C. 96 m
D. 124 m
E. 240 m
A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly equal to___________________?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 250
E. 500
If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =_________________?
A. j-2
B. 2j-l
C. 2/-3
D. 3/-2
E. 2/ -4
The co-efficient of friction depends upon_______________?
A. nature of surfaces
B. area of contact
C. shape of the surfaces
D. ail of the above.
E. A. and B. above
A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body_____________________?
A. balance each other
B. cannot balance each other
C. produce moment of a couple
D. are equivalent
E. none of the above
The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another surface is called__________________?
A. limiting friction
B. sliding friction
C. rolling friction
D. kinematic friction
E. dynamic friction
The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j) is equal to _________________?
A. Wtan(a + )
B. Wtan(a-)
C. Wcos(a + )
D. Wsin(a + )
E. W (sin a + cos ).
Coulomb friction is the friction between _________________?
A. bodies having relative motion
B. two dry surfaces
C. two lubricated surfaces
D. solids and liquids
E. electrically charged particles
A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9 is_______________?
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
E. 90°.
A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given by x = t2 (t – 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation __________________?
A. 3t2-lt
B. 3t2+2t
C. 6f-8
D. 6f-4
E. 6t2-8t
If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his umbrella___________________?
A. more inclined when moving
B. less inclined when moving
C. more inclined when standing
D. less inclined when standing
E. none of the above
A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point of motion up the plane when P is equal to________________?
A. W
B. W sin (a + $)
C. Wtan(a + <|))
D. W\an(a-)
E. Wtana
Coefficient of friction is the_________________?
A.    angle between a normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. tangent of angle of repose

Civil Engineering MCQ

Civil Engineering MCQ
Civil Engineering MCQ

Civil Engineering MCQ

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 2: Stamflay.com

Civil Engineering Mcqs:
Which of the following is a mineral ?
A. basalt
B. granite
C. quartz
D. syenite
Gypsum is a_________________?
A. mechanically formed sedimentary rock
B. igneous rock
C. chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
D. metamorphic rock
Which of the following is a rock ?
A. quartz
B. mica
C. gypsum
D. none of the above
A heavy stone is suitable for________________?
A. arches
B. rubble masonry
C. roads
D. retaining walls
Slate is formed by metamorphic action on______________?
A. shale
B. lime stone
C. sand stone
D. granite
Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?
A. marble
B. lime stone
C. compact sand stone
D. granite
Quality control is aimed at__________?
A. Maintaining the desired quality
B. Exceeding the desired quality
C. Continuously improving the quality
D. Following the quality
The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is_____________?
A. quartz
B. feldspar
C. mica
D. none of the above
Jumper is a tool used for_______________?
A. testing of stones
B. quarrying of stones
C. dressing of stones
D. none of the above
A good building stone should not absorb water more than_____________?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Sandstone is a ________________?
i. sedimentary rock
ii. aqueous rock
iii. silicious rock
The correct answer is:
A. only (i)
B. both (i) and (ii)
C. both (i) and (iii)
D. all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Which of these is correct with respect to a product developed or a service performed?
A. Bad quality is acceptable, but bad grade is not.
B. Bad grade is acceptable, but bad quality is not.
C. Neither bad grade nor quality is acceptable.
D. Grade and quality is the same thing.
What characteristic best describes the cost baseline?
A. Total budget for the project
B. Time phased budget for the project
C. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget
D. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget and the management reserve
Engineering ethics refers to_______________?
A. The rules and standards given by an institution for Engineering practice
B. The rules and regulation relating to obligations and rights of others
C. The professional regulation
D. The rules and standards which govern the conduct of Engineers as professional Engineers
As per PEC Code of Conduct a member shall report unethical professional practices of an engineer or a member with substantiating data to____________?
A. Court of Law
B. Concerned Department
C. Pakistan Engineering Council
D. Law enforcing Agency
How many commandments are given in PEC Code of Ethics?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 10
D. 05
While designing a project by an engineer, ______________should be taken into account to protect cultural heritage?
A. All possible alternates
B. No protection
C. Minimum protection
D. No care
Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ?
A. sand stone
B. lime stone
C. shale
D. gypsum
Quartitze is a_____________?
A. silicious rock
B. argillaceous rock
C. calcareous rock
D. aqueous rock
The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be____________?
A. hard
B. tough
C. heavy
D. light
Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics ?
A. marble
B. quartzite
C. slate
D. lime stone
The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is________________?
A. hardness test
B. work ability test
C. weight test
D. toughness test
Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because_______________?
A. it can not be polished
B. it is not a fire proof material
C. it is costly
D. it has less crushing strength
The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as______________?
A. quarrying of stones
B. blasting of stones
C. seasoning of stones
D. dressing of stones
Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica______________?
A. basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
B. there is no sedimentary rock
C. granite is the only igneous rock
D. quartz and mica are minerals
Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge ?
A. granite
B. sand stone
C. lime stone
D. quartzite
Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between_____________?
A. 1.5 to 2.0
B. 2.0 to 2.5
C. 2.5 to 3.0
D. 3.0 to 3.5
Cross cut saw is used for_______________?
A. cutting soft stones
B. cutting hard stones
C. cutting large blocks of stones
D. dressing stones
Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than____________?
A. 50 MPa
B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 200 MPa
Spalling hammer is used for_____________?
A. driving wooden headed chisels
B. rough dressing of stones
C. carving of stones
D. breaking small projection of stones
Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
A. mulberry
B. mahogany
C. sal
D. deodar
Sapwood consists of______________?
A. innermost annular rings around the pith
B. portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
C. thin layers below the bark
D. thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood ?
A. deodar and shishum
B. chir and sal
C. sal and teak
D. chir and deodar
Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?
A. deodar
B. chir
C. shishum
D. pine
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as________________?
A. heart shakes
B. cupshakes
C. starshakes
D. rindgalls
The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by_____________?
A. lack of ventilation
B. alternate wet and dry conditions
C. complete submergence in water
D. none of the above
In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?
A. parallel to grains
B. 45° to grains
C. perpendicular to grains
D. same in all directions
Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock? (1) slate (2) shale (3) quartzite . The correct answer is___________?
A. only (3)
B. both (1) and (3)
C. both (2) and (3)
D. all (1), (2) and (3)
Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork. Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is_______________?
A. 4% to 6%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 15% to 20%
D. 100%
Plywood has the advantage of_____________?
A. greater tensile strength in longer direction
B. greater tensile strength in shorter direction
C. same tensile strength in all directions
D. none of the above
The plywood______________?
A. has good strength along the panel only
B. can be spilt in the plane of the panel
C. has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
D. cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
First class timber has an average life of_____________?
A. less than one year
B. 1 to 5 years
C. 5 to 10 years
D. more than 10 years
The main function of alumina in brick earth is_______________?
A. to impart plasticity
B. to make the brick durable
C. to prevent shrinkage
D. to make the brick impermeable
A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than______________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 22%
D. 25%
Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is_________________?
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°
The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as_______________?
A. log
B. batten
C. plank
D. baulk
The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is________________?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 35%
Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than_____________?
A. 3.5 N/mm2
B. 7.0 N/mm2
C. 10.5 N/mm2
D. 14.0 N/mm2
The age of a tree can be known by examining_________________?
A. cambium layer
B. annular rings
C. medullary rays
D. heart wood
Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick______________?
A. impermeable
B. brittle and weak
C. to lose cohesion
D. to crack and warp on drying
Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between_______________?
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________?
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________?
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________?
A. cracking and warping of bricks
B. loss of cohesion
C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks
D. none of the above
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia
The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________?
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying
The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________?
A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
D. none of the above
Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks
Pug mill is used for_______________?
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?
A. lime stone and alumina
B. silica and alkalies
C. alumina and iron
D. alkalies and magnesium
The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________?
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side
Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________?
A. it takes less time for burning
B. it gives more output of first class bricks
C. it has less initial cost
D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________?
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550
Quick lime is_______________?
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium oxide
C. calcium hydroxide
D. none of the above
Quick lime is (1) slow in setting (2) rapid in slacking (3) good in strength The correct answer is____________?
A. only (1)
B. only (2)
C. both (1) and (2)
D. both (2) and (3)
Glazing is used to make earthenware______________?
A. hard
B. soft
C. porous
D. impervious
Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________?
A. burning of lime stone
B. burning of kankar
C. adding water to quick lime
D. calcination of pure clay
The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________?
A. lime and silica
B. lime and alumina
C. silica and alumina
D. lime and iron
Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the_______________?
A. setting time of cement
B. soundness of cement
C. tensile strength of cement
D. compressive strength of cement
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than_____________?
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 600 minutes
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is____________?
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite
As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be_______________?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 10 hours
Study the following statements. (1) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (2) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing, (3) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (4) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar. The correct answer is______________?
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (1) and (2)
D. (3) and (4)
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________?
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water
The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is_________________?
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. all of the above
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________?
A. 50 mm
B. 70.6 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 150 mm
Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________?
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate
According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than________________?
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa
With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
D. first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases__________________?
A. bleeding
B. shrinkage
C. permeability
D. heat of hydration
The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________?
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm
After storage, the strength of cement________________?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. may increase or decrease
The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Gypsum consists of______________?
A. H2S and C02
B. CaS04 and H20
C. Lime and H20
D. C02 and calcium
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of___________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:6
Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is_______________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is______________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur
Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are_______________?
A. iron ore, coal and sulphur
B. iron ore, carbon and sulphur
C. iron ore, coal and lime stone
D. iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about_________________?
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2
The most commonly used retarder in cement is_________________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is_____________?
A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
B. to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
C. to render the concrete more water tight
D. to improve the workability of concrete mix
Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. mild steel
D. high carbon steel
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________?
A. 0.2 liter
B. 0.4 liter
C. 0.6 liter
D. 0.8 liter
In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as_______________?
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond
The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually______________?
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
D. none of the above
Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of______________________?
A. wood work
B. iron work
C. both wood work and iron work
D. none of the above
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
D. none of the above
Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is______________?
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is_______________?
A. less than 0.25
B. between 0.25 and 0.7
C. between 0.7 and 1.5
D. greater than 1.5
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________?
A. along the direction of bedding planes
B. at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
C. at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
D. perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
A queen closer is a______________?
A. brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
B. brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
C. brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
D. brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________?
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm
Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer
The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is____________?
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________?
A. single flemish bond
B. double flemish bond
C. English bond
D. zigzag bond
Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________?
A. half brick thick
B. one brick thick
C. one and a half bricks thick
D. two bricks thick
Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________?
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are_______________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more
The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than_____________?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to_________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4
Single flemish bond consists of___________________?
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to_________________?
A. increase the depth of foundation
B. drain the soil
C. compact the soil
D. replace the poor soi
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to______________?
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm
The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________?
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring
Depth or height of the arch is the________________?
A. perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
B. vertical distance between springing line and intrados
C. perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
D. none of the above
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________?
A. friction pile
B. sheet pile
C. batter pile
D. anchor pile
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_____________?
A. compacting the soil
B. draining the soil
C. increasing the depth of foundation
D. grouting
The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is_______________?
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.7 m
C. 0.9 m
D. 1.2 m
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as______________?
A. intrados
B. rise
C. spandril
D. extrados
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is_______________?
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch
The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as_____________________?
A. haunch
B. spandril
C. voussoirs
D. skewbacks
In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for________________?
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
D. none of the above
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is______________?
 A. pitched and sloping roof
B. flat roof
C. shell roof
D. none of the above
The lintels are preferred to arches because______________?
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is__________________?
A. mortise and tennon joint
B. oblique mortise and tennon joint
C. butt joint
D. mitred joint
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as_____________?
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof
The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called______________?
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter
Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for________________?
A. coastal regions
B. plain regions
C. covering large areas
D. all of the above
Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in________________?
A. two directions without break in the slope on each side
B. two directions with break in the slope on each side
C. four directions without break in the slope on each side
D. four directions with break in the slope on each side
The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as______________?
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of________________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
The function of cleats in a roof truss is______________?
A. to support the common rafter
B. to support purlins
C. to prevent the purlins from tilting
D. all of the above
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of______________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
The function of king post in a king post roof truss is_______________?
A. to support the frame work of the roof
B. to receive the ends of principal rafter
C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward
D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________?
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
C. 60° and 10°
D. 40° and 25°
Sum of tread and rise must lie between_______________?
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm
The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to______________?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. no limit
Minimum width of landing should be_______________?
A. equal to width of stairs
B. half the width of stairs
C. twice the width of stairs
D. one fourth the width of stairs
The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as_________________?
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings
The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. no limit
The term string is used for______________?
A. the underside of a stair
B. outer projecting edge of a tread
C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
D. a vertical member between two treads
In a colar beam roof_______________?
A. there is no horizontal tie beam
B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________?
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is_________________?
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
D. none of the above
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has (1) high compressive strength (2) high tensile strength (3) low compressive strength (4) low tensile strength The correct answer is_________________?
A. (1) and (2)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (1)and(4)
Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in__________?
1. better workability
2. better resistance to freezing and thawing
3. lesser workability
4. less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is:
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1)and(4)
C. ((2)and (3)
D. (3)and (4)
The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________?
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic
The stopping sight distance depends upon_______________?
A. total reaction time of driver
B. speed of vehicle
C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above
Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is________________?
A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet
Camber in the road is provided for_______________?
A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
D. none of the above
On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal to______________?
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance
The shoulder provided along the road edge should be_______________?
A. rougher than the traffic lanes
B. smoother than the traffic lanes
C. of same colour as that of the pavement
D. of very low load bearing capacity
When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________?
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving
For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber is_______________?
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60
The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is______________?
A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey
B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey
Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming______________?
A. rectangular or block road pattern
B. radial or star and block road pattern
C. radial or star and circular road pattern
D. radial or star and grid road pattern
Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance is_______________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed
The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________?
A. overtaking sight distance
B. two times the overtaking sight distance
C. three times the overtaking sight distance
D. five times the overtaking sight distance
Select the correct statement______________?
A. Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population
B. Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km
C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway
D. Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while calculating the length of roads
Reaction time of a driver_______________?
A. increases with increase in speed
B. decreases with increase in speed
C. is same for all speeds
D. none of the above
If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two way traffic is_________________?
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m
If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be________________?
A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction
The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations is_____________?
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph
The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is_______________?
A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades
Stopping sight distance is always_______________?
A. less than overtaking sight distance
B. equal to overtaking sight distance
C. more than overtaking sight distance
D. none of the above
The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________?
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%
For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced by_____________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%
For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation increases with_______________?
A. increase in both speed and radius of curve
B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve
C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain terrain is_______________?
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber
On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure on the outer wheels will be_________________?
A. more than the pressure on inner wheels
B. less than the pressure on inner wheels
C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels
The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the pavement_______________?
A. is preferable in steep terrain
B. results in balancing the earthwork
C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
D. does not change the vertical alignment of road
To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the design speed is given by_________________?
A. 8 kmph
B. 12kmph
C. 16kmph
D. 20 kmph
In case of hill roads, the extra widening is generally provided______________?
A. equally on inner and outer sides of the curve
B. fully on the inner side of the curve
C. fully on the outer side of the curve
D. one-fourth on inner side and three-fourth on outer side of the curve
The maximum design gradient for vertical profile of a road is______________?
A. ruling gradient
B. limiting gradient
C. exceptional gradient
D. minimum gradient
The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC recommendations is_______________?
A. spiral
B. lemniscate
C. cubic parabola
D. any of the above
The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph is______________?
A. 110 m
B. 220 m
C. 440 m
D. 577 m
Select the correct statement_________________?
A. Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.
B. Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
C. Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.
D. Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle
For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is_____________?
A. based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
B. based on rate of change of super elevation
C. higher of (A) and (B)
D. smaller of (A) and (B)
If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then the compensated grade should be_________________?
A. 3 %
B. 4%
C. 5 %
D. 6%
Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ?
A. simple parabola
B. cubic parabola
C. spiral
D. lemniscate
The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of radius 760 m is____________________?
A. 0.1 %
B. 1 %
C. 10%
D. no compensation
The camber of road should be approximately equal to___________________?
A. longitudinal gradient
B. two times the longitudinal gradient
C. three times the longitudinal gradient
D. half the longitudinal gradient
In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when_______________?
A. an ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient
B. an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient
C. a descending gradient meets with another descending gradient
D. an ascending gradient meets with a level surface
Enoscope is used to find______________?
A. average speed
B. spot speed
C. space-mean speed
D. time-mean speed
If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 50, the length of summit curve for a stopping sight distance of 80 m will be_______________?
A. zero
B. 64m
C. 80m
D. 60m
The value of ruling gradient in plains as per IRC recommendation is______________?
A. 1 in 12
B. 1 m 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 30
If the design speed is V kmph and deviation angle is N radians, then the total length of a valley curve in meters is given by the expression_________________?
A. 0.38 N V3/2
B. 0.38 (NV3)”2
C. 3.8 NV”2
D. 3.8 (NV3)”2
Highway facilities are designed for_________________?
A. annual average hourly volume
B. annual average daily traffic
C. thirtieth highest hourly volume
D. peak hourly volume of the year
For highway geometric design purposes the speed used is________________?
A. 15th percentile
B. 50 “”percentile
C. 85th percentile
D. 98 “”percentile
The maximum width of a vehicle as recommended by IRC is________________?
A. 1.85m
B. 2.44 m
C. 3.81 m
D. 4.72 m
Select the correct statement__________________?
A. Traffic volume should always be more than traffic capacity
B. Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume
C. Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section
D. 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed
Which of the following methods is preferred for collecting origin and destination data for a small area like a mass business center or a large intersection ?
A. road side interview method
B. license plate method
C. return postcard method
D. home interview method
Length of a vehicle affects________________?
A. width of traffic lanes
B. extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius
C. width of shoulders and parking facilities
D. clearance to be provided under structures such as overbridges, under-bridges etc
Desire lines are plotted in_________________?
A. traffic volume studies
B. speed studies
C. accident studies
D. origin and destination studies
The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in accidents is known as___________________?
A. spot maps
B. pie charts
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram
Which of the following is known as design capacity ?
A. basic capacity
B. theoretical capacity
C. possible capacity
D. practical capacity
Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is_____________?
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 0.5
D. 10
With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
D. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the lane________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
D. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then the theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is________________?
A. 1500 vehicles per hour
B. 2000 vehicles per hour
C. 2500 vehicles per hour
D. 3000 vehicles per hour
The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location like roadway limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as_____________?
A. pie chart
B. spot maps
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram
The background colour of the informatory sign board is______________?
A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. white
When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero,then_______________?
A. traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
B. traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value
C. traffic density and traffic volume both become zero
D. traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value
Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be based on_____________?
A. spot speed data
B. origin and destination data
C. traffic volume data
D. accident data
On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points is______________?
A. 6
B. 11
C. 18
D. 24
Which of the following is indicated by a warning sign ?
A. level crossing
B. no parking
C. end of speed limit
D. overtaking prohibited
The most efficient traffic signal system is________________?
A. simultaneous system
B. alternate system
C. flexible progressive system
D. simple progressive system
Select the incorrect statement?
A. Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow
B. Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow
C. Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds
D. The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals
“Dead Slow” is a______________?
A. regulatory sign
B. warning sign
C. informatory sign
D. none of the above
The provision of traffic signals at intersections______________?
A. reduces right angled and rear end collisions
B. increases right angled and rear end collisions
C. reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
D. reduces rear end collisions but may increase right angled collisions
The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly marked by the pavement marking known as________________?
A. stop lines
B. turn markings
C. crosswalk lines
D. lane lines
When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape of central island is________________?
A. circular
B. elliptical
C. tangent
D. turbine
Centre line markings are used_____________?
A. to designate traffic lanes
B. in roadways meant for two way traffic
C. to indicate that overtaking is not permitted
D. to designate proper lateral placement of vehicles before turning to different directions
The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have_______________?
A. equal radii and equal widths of pavement
B. equal radii but pavement width is more at entrance than at exit curve
C. equal pavement widths but radius is more at entrance curve than at exit curve
D. different radii and different widths of pavement
The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function efficiently is______________?
A. 500 vehicles per hour
B. 500 vehicles per day
C. 5000 vehicles per hour
D. 5000 vehicles per day
As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast traffic is______________?
A. 10 lux
B. 15 lux
C. 20 lux
D. 30 lux
Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with_______________?
A. parallel parking
B. 30° angle parking
C. 45° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
A traffic rotary is justified where______________?
A. number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
B. space is limited and costly
C. when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
D. when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the suitable shape of rotary is________________?
A. circular
B. tangent
C. elliptical
D. turbine
When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking system is________________?
A. parallel parking
B. 45° angle parking
C. 65° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is_______________?
A. single side lighting
B. staggered system
C. central lighting system
D. none of the above
In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then_____________?
A. compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases
B. compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease
C. compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase
D. compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct______________?
A. abrasion test
B. impact test
C. attrition test
D. crushing strength test
The direct interchange ramp involves____________?
A. diverging to the right side and merging from left
B. diverging to the left side and merging from right
C. diverging to the right side and merging from right
D. diverging to the left side and merging from left
Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates ?
A. crushing strength test
B. abrasion test
C. impact test
D. shape test
If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as_______________?
A. exceptionally strong
B. strong
C. satisfactory for road surfacing
D. unsuitable for road surfacing
Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is______________?
A. more than that in tar
B. less than that in tar
C. equal to that in tar
D. none of the above
In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at_______________?
A. 2.5 mm penetration only
B. 5.0 mm penetration only
C. 7.5 mm penetration only
D. both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is_______________?
A. 10%
B. 20 %
C. 30%
D. 45 %
The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than____________?
A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 60 cm
Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen ?
A. 30/40
B. 60/70
C. 80/100
D. 100/120
Bitumen of grade 80/100 means______________?
A. its penetration value is 8 mm
B. its penetration value is 10 mm
C. its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
D. its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum temperature is 40° C should be______________?
A. less-than 40°C
B. greater than 40°C
C. equal to 40°C
D. none of the above
The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is______________?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Group index method of design of flexible pavement is_______________?
A. a theoretical method
B. an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
C. an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil
D. a semi empirical method
Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load_____________?
A. directly to subgrade
B. through structural action
C. through a set of layers to the subgrade
D. none of the above
The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is____________?
A. group index method
B. CBR method
C. Westergaard method
D. Benkelman beam method
Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its_____________?
A. grade
B. viscosity
C. ductility
D. temperature susceptibility
The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is_______________?
A. RT-1
B. RT-2
C. RT.3
D. RT-5
The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is____________?
A. 0.4 %
B. 0.6%
C. 0.8 %
D. 1.0 %
RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to_______________?
A. same viscosity
B. viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
C. viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
D. none of the above
For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is______________?
A. gasoline
B. kerosene oil
C. light diesel
D. heavy diesel
Bottom most layer of pavement is known as_____________?
A. wearing course
B. base course
C. sub-base course
D. subgrade
The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should be able to support during the life of pavement is______________?
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. 1000000
Tyre pressure influences the______________?
A. total depth of pavement
B. quality of surface course
C. both the above
D. none of the above
Select the correct statement______________?
A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required
B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
D. all of the above
Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm2 is_______________?
A. equal to 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. zero
Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at______________?
A. expansion joints
B. contraction joints
C. warping joints
D. longitudinal joints
The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to______________?
A. relieve warping stresses
B. relieve shrinkage stresses
C. resist stresses due to expansion
D. allow free expansion
The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is_____________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5m
The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is____________?
A. load stress + warping stress frictional stress
B. load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
C. load stress + warping stress
D. load stress + frictional stress
If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is treated as_____________?
A. good
B. fair
C. poor
D. very poor
The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is______________?
A. 0
B. 25 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 100 mm
The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is_____________?
A. climatic condition
B. type and intensity of traffic
C. subgrade soil and drainage conditions
D. availability of funds for the construction project
Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is______________?
A. 500 tonnes per day
B. 1000 tonnes per day
C. 1500 tonnes per day
D. 2000 tonnes per day
The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter width and for 10 mm thickness is________________?
A. 8 cubic meter
B. 10 cubic meter
C. 12 cubic meter
D. 15 cubic meter
The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is________________?
A. cement
B. lime
C. bitumen
D. none of the above
For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after spreading coarse aggregates is________________?
A. dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
B. dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
C. dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
D. dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is________________?
A. seal coat
B. tack coat
C. prime coat
D. spray of emulsion
The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a_______________?
A. smooth wheeled roller
B. pneumatic tyred roller
C. sheep foot roller
D. vibrator
Most suitable material for highway embankments is______________?
A. granular soil
B. organic soil
C. silts
D. clays
The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is________________?
A. equal to the cross slope of pavement
B. less than the cross slope of pavement
C. greater than the cross slope of pavement
D. zero
In highway construction, rolling starts from________________?
A. sides and proceed to centre
B. centre and proceed to sides
C. one side and proceed to other side
D. any of the above
In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is__________________?
A. sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
B. premixed with aggregates and then spread
C. sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
D. none of the above
Which of the following premix methods is used for base course ?
A. bituminous carpet
B. mastic asphalt
C. sheet asphalt
D. bituminous bound macadam
The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is________________?
A. sheet asphalt
B. bituminous carpet
C. mastic asphalt
D. rolled asphalt
The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from__________________?
A. 20 to 25 mm
B. 50 to 75 mm
C. 75 to 100 mm
D. 100 to 120 mm

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Select the correct statement________________?
A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during bituminous road construction
C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black top pavements ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes is known as_______________?
A. sloping drain
B. catchwater drain
C. side drain
D. cross drain
In hill roads the side drains arc provided________________?
A. only on the hill side of road
B. only on the opposite side of hill
C. on both sides of road
D. none of the above
The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as_______________?
A. 20 kmph
B. 30 kmph
C. 40 kmph
D. 50 kmph
In highway construction on super elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from_________________?
A. sides towards the centre
B. centre towards the sides
C. lower edge towards the upper edge
D. upper edge towards the lower edge
The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as________________?
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 3%
D. 4%
The correction for sag is_________________?
A. always additive
B. always subtractive
C. always zero
D. sometimes additive and sometimes subtractive
Which of the following methods of offsets involves less measurement on the ground?
A. method of perpendicular offsets
B. method of oblique offsets
C. method of ties
D. all involve equal measurement on the ground
The allowable length of an offset depends upon the______________?
A. degree of accuracy required
B. method of setting out the perpendiculars and nature of ground
C. scale of plotting
D. all of the above
For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than______________?
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
During chaining along a straight line, the . leader of the party has 4 arrows in his hand while the follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is_____________?
A. 4 chains
B. 6 chains
C. 120 m
D. 180m
The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square is______________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff?
A. 45° only
B. 90° only
C. either 45° or 90°
D. any angle
The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly ground is_____________?
A. 1 in 100
B. 1 in 250
C. 1 in 500
D. 1 in 1000
Normal tension is that pull which_______________?
A. is used at the time of standardising the tape
B. neutralizes the effect due to pull and sag
C. makes the correction due to sag equal to zero
D. makes the correction due to pull equal to zero
If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by______________?
A. straightening the links
B. removing one or more small circular rings
C. closing the joints of the rings if opened out
D. all of the above
Cross staff is an instrument used for________________?
A. measuring approximate horizontal angles
B. setting out right angles
C. measuring bearings of the lines
D. none of the above
Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets ?
A. line ranger
B. steel tape
C. optical square
D. cross staff
For a line AB_______________?
A. the forebearing of AB and back bearing of AB differ by 180°
B. the forebearing of AB and back bearing of BA differ by 180°
C. both (A. and (B. are correct.
D. none is correct
If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30′, then the azimuth of the line AB is_____________?
A. 0° 30′
B. 89° 30′
C. 90° 30′
D. 269° 30′
The length of a chain is measured from_______________?
A. centre of one handle to centre of other handle
B. outside of one handle to outside of other handle
C. outside of one handle to inside of other handle
D. inside of one handle to inside of other handle
The maximum tolerance in a 20 m chain is_______________?
A. ±2 mm
B. ±3 mm
C. ±5 mm
D. ±8 mm
Select the incorrect statement?
A. The true meridians at different places are parallel to each other
B. The true meridian at any place is not variable
C. The true meridians converge to a point in northern and southern hemispheres
D. The maps prepared by national survey departments of any country are based on true meridians
For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to chain because the steel band______________?
A. is lighter than chain
B. is easier to handle
C. is practically inextensible and is not liable to kinks when in use
D. can be easily repaired in the field
In the prismatic compass______________?
A. the magnetic needle moves with the box
B. the line of the sight does not move with the box
C. the magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
D. the graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the N-S direction
In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30′ can be expressed as______________?
A. W23°30’N
B. N66°30’W
C. S113°30’N
D. N23°30’W
The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is called______________?
A. azimuth
B. declination
C. local attraction
D. magnetic bearing
Local attraction in compass surveying may exist due to________________?
A. incorrect levelling of the magnetic needle
B. loss of magnetism of the needle
C. friction of the needle at the pivot
D. presence of magnetic substances near the instrument
The prismatic compass and surveyor’s compass________________?
A. give whole circle bearing (WCB. of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB. of a line respectively
B. both give QB of a line and WCB of a line
C. both give QB of a line
D. both give WCB of a line
A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the________________?
A. eastern side of the true meridian
B. western side of the true meridian
C. southern side of the true meridian
D. none of the above
Agate cap is fitted with a_________________?
A. cross staff
B. level
C. chain
D. prismatic compass
If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is 167°, the magnetic declination at that place is________________?
A. 77° N
B. 23° S
C. 13° E
D. 13° W
The graduations in prismatic compass_____________?
1. are inverted
2. are upright
3. run clockwise having 0° at south
4. run clockwise having 0° at north
The correct answer is ?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is known as______________?
A. transiting
B. reversing
C. plunging
D. swinging
Which of the following is not the function of levelling head ?
A. to support the main part of the instrument
B. to attach the theodolite to the tripod
C. to provide a means for leveling the theodolite
D. none of the above
A telescope is said to be inverted if its______________?
A. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down
B. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up
C. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down
D. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is up
Size of a theodolite is specified by________________?
A. the length of telescope
B. the diameter of vertical circle
C. the diameter of lower plate
D. the diameter of upper plate
If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the theodolite may be rotated____________?
A. on its outer spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of lower plate
B. on its outer spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and gra-duated scale of lower plate
C. on its inner spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower plate
D. on its inner spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower plate
For which of the following permanent adjustments of theodolite, the spire test is used ?
A. adjustment of plate levels
B. adjustment of line of sight
C. adjustment of horizontal axis
D. adjustment of altitude bubble and vertical index frame
Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition of horizontal angle measurement ?
A. error due to eccentricity of verniers
B. error due to displacement of station signals
C. error due to wrong adjustment of line of collimation and trunnion axis
D. error due to inaccurate graduation
The cross hairs in the surveying telescope are placed_____________?
A. midway between eye piece and objec¬tive lens
B. much closer to the eye-piece than to the objective lens
C. much closer to the objective lens than to the eye piece
D. anywhere between eye-piece and objective lens
The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used for_____________?
A. leveling
B. prolonging a straight line
C. measurement of horizontal angles
D. all of the above
The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axes can be eliminated by________________?
A. reading both verniers and taking the mean of the two
B. taking both face observations and taking the mean of the two
C. double sighting
D. taking mean of several readings distributed over different portions of the graduated circle
In an internal focussing type of telescope, the lens provided is_______________?
A. concave
B. convex
C. plano-convex
D. plano-concave
The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on_______________?
A. backsight
B. intermediate sight
C. foresight
D. all of the above
A’level line’is a______________?
A. horizontal line
B. line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth
C. line passing through the center of cross hairs and the center of eye piece
D. line passing through the objective lens and the eye-piece of a dumpy or tilting level
If a tripod settles in the interval that elapses between taking a back sight reading and the following foresight reading, then the elevation of turning point will_________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. not change
D. either ‘a’ or ‘b’
In the double application of principle of reversion, the apparent error is_______________?
A. equal to true error
B. half the true error
C. two times the true error
D. four times the true error
Which of the following errors cannot be eliminated by taking both face observations ?
A. error due to horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis
B. index error i.e. error due to imperfect adjustment of the vertical circle vernier
C. error due to non-parallelism of the axis of telescope level and line of collimation
D. none of the above
Theodolite is an instrument used for_________________?
A. tightening the capstan-headed nuts of level tube
B. measurement of horizontal angles only
C. measurement of vertical angles only
D. measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles
If altitude bubble is provided both on index frame as well as on telescope of a theodolite, then the instrument is levelled with reference to_________________?
1. altitude bubble on index frame
2. altitude bubble on index frame if it is to be used as a level
3. altitude bubble on telescope
4. altitude bubble on telescope if it is to be used as a level
The correct answer is?
A. only (1)
B. both (1) and (4)
C. only (3)
D. both (2) and (3)
Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking mean of bot face observations ?
A. error due to imperfect graduations
B. error due to eccentricity of verniers
C. error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels
D. error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to horizontal axis
The following sights are taken on a “turning point”________________?
A. foresight only
B. backsight only
C. foresight and backsight
D. foresight and intermediate sight
If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back- sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m, the R.L. of the forward station is_________________?
A. 99.345 m
B. 100.345 m
C. 100.655m
D. 101.870m
As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature and refraction are respectively The above table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X should be________________?
A. 98.70
B. 100.00
C. 102.30
D. 103.30
Refraction correction________________?
A. completely eliminates curvature correction
B. partially eliminates curvature correction
C. adds to the curvature correction
D. has no effect on curvature correction
The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by________________?
A. increasing the diameter of the tube
B. decreasing the length of bubble
C. increasing the viscosity of liquid
D. decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
If the staff is not held vertical at a level¬ling station, the reduced level calculated from the observation would be_______________?
A. true R.L
B. more than true R.L
C. less than true R.L
D. none of the above
Which of the following errors can be neutralised by setting the level midway between the two stations ?
A. error due to curvature only
B. error due to refraction only
C. error due to both curvature and re-fraction
D. none of the above
The rise and fall method_______________?
A. is less.accurate than height of instrument method
B. is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels
C. provides a check on the reduction of intermediate point levels
D. quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that_______________?
A. level line is a curved line while hori-zontal line is a straight line
B. level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line at the tangent point to level line
C. horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb line
D. both are same
With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube______________?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unaffected
D. none of the above
The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is 2.455 m. If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L. of point B will be_______________?
A. 94.80 m
B. 99.71 m
C. 100.29 m
D. 105.20 m
If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is d, then the error due to curvature of earth is proportional to_______________?
A. d
B. 1/d
C. d2
D. 1/d2
The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is______________?
A. 2 m
B. 5m
C. 10 m
D. 20 m
Contour interval is_______________?
A. inversely proportional to the scale of the map
B. directly proportional to the flatness of ground
C. larger for accurate works
D. larger if the time available is more
Dumpy level is most suitable when______________?
A. the instrument is to be shifted frequently
B. fly levelling is being done over long distance
C. many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
D. all of the above
Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by______________?
A. radius of level tube
B. length of level tube
C. length of bubble of level tube
D. none of the above
The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the instrument station should be_______________?
A. equidistant from A and B
B. closer to the higher station
C. closer to the lower station
D. as far as possible from the line AB
An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal is known as__________________?
A. contour line
B. horizontal equivalent
C. contour interval
D. contour gradient
Select the correct statement_______________?
A. A contour is not necessarily a closed curve
B. A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value con¬tour lies towards the higher value contour
C. Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an overhanging cliff
D. All of the above statements are correct
In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is called_______________?
A. ranging
B. centring
C. horizontal control
D. vertical control
Which of the following methods of con-touring is most suitable for a hilly terrain ?
A. direct method
B. square method
C. cross-sections method
D. tacheometric method
Direct method of contouring is_________________?
A. a quick method
B. adopted for large surveys only
C. most accurate method
D. suitable for hilly terrains
Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a_______________?
A. depression
B. hillock
C. plain surface
D. none of the above
A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a___________________?
A. steep slope
B. gentle slope
C. uniform slope
D. plane surface
Benchmark is established by________________?
A. hypsometry
B. barometric levelling
C. spirit levelling
D. trigonometrical levelling
Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for________________?
A. forests
B. urban areas
C. hilly areas
D. plains
Three point problem can be solved by_________________?
A. Tracing paper method
B. Bessels method
C. Lehman’s method
D. all of the above
The type of surveying which requires least office work is________________?
A. tacheomefry
B. trigonometrical levelling
C. plane table surveying
D. theodolite surveying
Detailed plotting is generally done by________________?
A. radiation
B. traversing
C. resection
D. all of the above
The size of a plane table is________________?
A. 750 mm x 900 mm
B. 600 mm x 750 mm
C. 450 mm x 600 mm
D. 300 mm x 450 mm
The two point problem and three point problem are methods of________________?
A. resection
B. orientation
C. traversing
D. resection and orientation
The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re sectors from the locations of the known stations is called_________________?
A. radiation
B. intersection
C. resection
D. traversing
Bowditch rule is applied to_________________?
A. an open traverse for graphical adjustment
B. a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
C. determine the effect of local attraction
D. none of the above
If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and departure respectively of the line AB will be________________?
A. +50 m, +86.6 m
B. +86.6 m, -50 m
C. +50m, -86.6 m
D. +70.7 m,-50 m
Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the position of an inaccessible point ?
A. radiation
B. intersection
C. traversing
D. resection
Select the correct statement?
A. Contour interval on any map is kept constant
B. Direct method of contouring is cheap¬er than indirect method
C. Inter-visibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained
D. Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours
The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is________________?
A. spirit level
B. alidade
C. plumbing fork
D. trough compass
The resection by two point problem as compared to three point problem_______________?
A. gives more accurate problem
B. takes less time
C. requires more labour
D. none of the above
If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south latitudes and also the sum of west departures is more than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of the closing line is in the________________?
A. NE quadrant
B. SE quadrant
C. NW quadrant
D. SW quadrant
Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a traverse is used where________________?
A. linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal accuracy
B. angular measurements are more accurate than linear measurements
C. linear measurements are more accurate than angular measurements
D. all of the above
Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric observations_________________?
A. require slope correction
B. require tension correction
C. require slope and tension corrections
D. do not require slope and tension corrections
Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the details which are far away from transit stations ?
A. measuring angle and distance from one transit station
B. measuring angles to the point from at least two stations
C. measuring angle at one station and distance from other
D. measuring distance from two points on traverse line
The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is ________________?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
For a tacheometer the additive and multi-plying constants are respectively________________?
A. 0 and 100
B. 100 and 0
C. 0 and 0
D. 100 and 100
Different grades are joined together by a ________________?
A. compound curve
B. transition curve
C. reverse curve
D. vertical curve
If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass to the trunnion axis is 15 cm, the additive constant is_______________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 1.33
If the intercept on a vertical staff is ob-served as 0.75 m from a tacheometer, the horizontal distance between tacheometer and staff station is________________?
A. 7.5 m
B. 25 m
C. 50
D. 75 m
Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using ________________?
A. compound curve
B. vertical curve
C. reverse curve
D. transition curve
Subtense bar is an instrument used for _______________?
A. levelling
B. measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
C. measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
D. measurement of angles
The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a traverse is called ________________?
A. deflection angle
B. included angle
C. direct angle
D. none of the above
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at each plane table station are ______________ ?
1. levelling
2. orientation
3. centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
A. (1), (2),(3)
B. (1), (3), (2)
C. (3), (1), (2)
D. (2), (3), (1)
The methods used for locating the plane table stations are_______________?
1. radiation
2. traversing
3.intersection
4. resection
The correct answer is
A. (1) and (2)
B. (3) and (4)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (1) and (3)
In the cross-section method of indirect contouring, the spacing of cross-sections depends upon_____________?
1. contour interval
2. scale of plan
3. characteristics of ground
The correct answer is ?
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
A metallic tape is made of ______________ ?
A. steel
B. invar
C. linen
D. cloth and wires
The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called____________?
A. segregation
B. compaction
C. shrinkage
D. bulking
Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is________________?
A. 0.003
B. 0.0003
C. 0.00003
D. 0.03
Workability of concrete is directly proportional to________________?
A. aggregate cement ratio
B. time of transit
C. grading of the aggregate
D. all of above
The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is given by_______________?
A. tcr – rcs = tct
B. fcr>fcs>fc
C. fcr<fcs
D. fc5>fcr>fC
Strength of concrete increases with________________?
A. increase in water-cement ratio
B. increase in fineness of cement
C. decrease in curing time
D. decrease in size of aggregate
As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement_______________?
A. reduces workability
B. increases bleeding
C. increases shrinkage
D. increases strength
According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be taken as______________?
A. Ec = = 5700
B. Ec = = 570
C. Ec = = 5700fck
D. Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in
The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is_______________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. sodium silicate
D. all of the above
The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about_______________?
A. 10 to 15% more
B. 15 to 20% more
C. 20 to 25% more
D. 25 to 50% more
Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called_______________?
A. workability admixtures
B. accelerators
C. retarders
D. air entraining agents
Increase in the moisture content in concrete_________________?
A. reduces the strength
B. increases the strength
C. does not change the strength
D. all of the above
The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is given by_______________?
A. fcr=0.35Vf7
B. fcr=0.57f7
C. fcr=0.7Vf7
D. fcr=1.2Vf7
where fcr and fck are in N/mm2′
The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength is_____________?
A. 0.33
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
Air entrainment in the concrete increases________________?
A. workability
B. strength
C. the effects of temperature variations
D. the unit weight
Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to______________?
A. time of transit
B. ‘vater-cement ratio
C. the air in the mix
D. size of aggregate
The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while placing and compacting, is called________________?
A. segregation
B. bleeding
C. bulking
D. creep
To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is_______________?
A. 150 x150 x500 mm
B. 100 x100 x700 mm
C. 150 x150 x700 mm
D. 100 x100 x500 mm
The percentage of voids in cement is approximately_______________?
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of_______________?
A. flexural tensile strength
B. direct tensile strength
C. compressive strength
D. split tensile strength
In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is_______________?
A. rounded
B. elongated
C. angular
D. all of the above
As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has______________?
A. higher initial setting time but lower final setting time
B. lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
C. higher initial and final setting times
D. lower initial and final setting times
Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about____________?
A. 2 %
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 10%
1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about______________?
A. 5%
B. 10 %
C. 15%
D. 20%
Finer grinding of cement______________?
A. affects only the early development of strength
B. affects only the ultimate strength
C. both (A. and (B.
D. does not affect the strength
Poisson’s ratio for concrete_______________?
A. remains constant
B. increases with richer mixes
C. decreases with richer mixes
D. none of the above
The factor of safety for______________?
A. steel and concrete are same
B. steel is lower than that for concrete
C. steel is higher than that for concrete
D. none of the above
The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of______________?
A. 2.0 to 3.5
B. 3.5 to 5.0
C. 5.0 to 7.0
D. 6.0 to 8.5
The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always_______________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. none of the above
If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by___________?
A. increasing the depth of beam
B. using thinner bars but more in number
C. using thicker bars but less in number
D. providing vertical stirrups
If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the beam is called________________?
A. balanced beam
B. under-reinforced beam
C. over-reinforced beam
D. none of the above
If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section will be___________________?
A. 0.35 d
B. 0.40 d
C. 0.45 d
D. dependent on grade of concrete also
Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-1978 is_____________?
A. M15
B. M20
C. M 10
D. M25
Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is_______________?
A. 28 liters
B. 30 liters
C. 32 liters
D. 34 liters
For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete expressed as compacting factor should be________________?
A. 0.75-0.80
B. 0.80-0.85
C. 0.85 – 0.92
D. above 0.92
In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is__________________?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than______________?
A. ±5% of average
B. ± 10% of average
C. ± 15% of average
D. ±20% of average
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after_______________?
A. 24 to 48 hours
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after______________?
A. 24 to 48 hours
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6 In above formula, l0 signifies_______________?
A. effective span of T-beam
B. distance between points of zero moments in the beam
C. distance between points of maximum moments in the beam
D. clear span of the T-beam
For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is__________________?
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 120 mm
For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is______________?
A. 3.5 m
B. 4 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5 m
Diagonal tension in a beam______________?
A. is maximum at neutral axis
B. decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
C. increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
D. remains same
According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater than________________?
A. the least lateral dimension
B. 2 times the least lateral dimension
C. 3 times the least lateral dimension
D. 4 times the least lateral dimension
For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be________________?
A. 600 mm
B. 750 mm
C. 900 mm
D. more than 1 m
According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is_______________?
A. less than 12
B. less than 18
C. between 18 and 24
D. more than 24
The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than_______________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 13 mm
The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is_______________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/6
D. 1/8
The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is not less than________________?
A. 0.15
B. 0.12
C. 0.30
D. 1.00
For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than_______________?
A. 15 mm
B. 25 mm
C. 30 mm
D. 40 mm
Lap length in compression shall not be less than______________?
A. 15 4>
B. 20
C. 24 (j)
D. 30 (j)
where (j) is diameter of bar
According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is________________?
A. directly proportional to compressive strength
B. inversely proportional to compressive strength
C. directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
D. inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength
According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is_____________?
A. 2 %
B. 4%
C. 6 %
D. 8 %
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
A. Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8%
B. Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300 mm
C. Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
D. The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four
Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is________________?
A. the least lateral dimension of the member
B. sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied
C. forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
D. lesser of the above three values
A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth (1/D. is less than__________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be_____________?
A. 50 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 150 mm
D. 200 mm
In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than______________?
A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 250 mm
The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is_____________?
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 1.5
C. between 1.5 and 2
D. greater than 2
If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength is_____________?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of_______________?
A. effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
B. d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
C. at the drop panel of slab
D. at the periphery of column
The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is_______________?
A. increased by 10% for bars in compression
B. increased by 25% for bars in compression
C. decreased by 10% for bars in compression
D. decreased by 25% for bars in compression
Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 – 1978 is________________?
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 60 m
A higher modular ratio shows____________?
A. higher compressive strength of con-crete
B. lower compressive strength of concrete
C. higher tensile strength of steel
D. lower tensile strength of steel
Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is______________?
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 1.5
C. between 1.5 and 2.0
D. greater than 2
In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by_______________?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a distance of x from the center of slab bearing where x is equal to________________?
A. 1/3
B. 1/5
C. 1/7
D. 1/10
where 1 is the span
If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of column strip and middle strip are__________________?
A. 3.0 m and 1.5 m
B. 1.5 m and 3.0 m
C. 3.0 m and 3.0 m
D. 1.5 m and 1.5 m
The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is_____________?
A. about 0.1 N/mm2
B. zero
C. 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2
D. about 1.0 N/mm2
When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by____________?
A. increasing the depth
B. providing shear reinforcement
C. using high strength steel
D. using thinner bars but more in number
The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is to resist in that zone_________________?
A. compressive stress
B. shear stress
C. bond stress
D. tensile stress
The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is given by_____________?
A. 0.15% to 2%
B. 0.8% to 4%
C. 0.8% to 6%
D. 0.8% to 8%
The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than________________?
A. 15 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 50mm
Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to___________________?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
The diameter of ties in a column should be_______________?
A. more than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar
B. more than or equal to 5 mm
C. more than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
D. more than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is________________?
A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 16 mm
For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken as_____________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is about________________?
A. 5% less
B. 10% less
C. 5% more
D. 10% more
Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column________________?
A. capacity of column is decreased
B. ductility of column reduces
C. capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
D. both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m ?
A. L-shaped wall
B. T-shaped wall
C. counterfort type
D. all of the above
The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is______________?
A. not needed
B. provided equally on inner and front faces
C. provided more on inner face than on front face
D. provided more on front face than on inner face
For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine’s theory_______________?
A. is always less than 1
B. is always greater than 1
C. can be more than 1
D. can be less than 1
Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as______________?
A. 20 kN/cm2
B. 200 kN/cm2
C. 200kN/mm2
D. 2xl06N/cm2
If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by kd in working stress design, then the value of k for balanced section_______________?
A. depends on as, only
B. depends on aCbC only
C. depends on both crst and acbc
D. is independant of both ast and acbc where d is the effective depth, ast is per-missible stress in steel in tension and ocbc is permissible stress in concrete in bend¬ing compression
If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal shear reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal to__________________?
A. xv
B. xc
C. xv – TC
D. Tv + Tc
For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is_______________?
A. wholly parabolic
B. wholly rectangular
C. parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
D. rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on______________?
A. top face perpendicular to wall
B. bottom face perpendicular to wall
C. both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
D. none of the above
In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is_______________?
A. not provided
B. provided only on inner face
C. provided only on front face
D. provided both on inner and front faces
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided on_______________?
A. front face only
B. inner face only
C. both front face and inner face
D. none of the above
A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of_________________?
A. one cantilever
B. two cantilevers
C. three cantilevers
D. four cantilevers
To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed for______________?
A. dead load only
B. dead load + live load
C. dead load + fraction of live load
D. live load + fraction of dead load
In a pile of length /, the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are located at______________?
A. 0.207 1
B. 0.25 /
C. 0.293 /
D. 0.333 /
While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly_______________?
A. both ends hinged
B. both ends fixed
C. one end fixed and other end hinged
D. one end fixed and other end free
The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is located_______________?
A. at the middle of the wall
B. at the edge of the wall
C. halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
D. at a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall
If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load basis, then_________________?
A. there will be no settlement of columns
B. there will be no differential settlement
C. the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns
D. the settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior columns
During erection, the pile of length / is supported by a crane at a distance of________________?
A. 0.207 /
B. 0.293 /
C. 0.7071
D. 0.793 /
from the driving end of pile which rests on the ground
According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a beam of effective depth d is__________________?
A. 0.43 d
B. 0.55 d
C. 0.68 d
D. 0.85 d
The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at a distance of__________________?
A. 0.367 xu
B. 0.416 xu
C. 0.446 xu
D. 0.573 xu
where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse
The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as_________________?
A. 1.5 and 2.2
B. 2.2 and 1.5
C. 1.5 and 1.5
D. 2.2 and 2.2
According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be_____________?
A. 0.03%
B. 0.1%
C. 0.3%
D. 3%
Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load. Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads?
Select your answer based on the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is_______________?
A. 0.37 fy
B. 0.57 fy
C. 0.67 fy
D. 0.87 fy
where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
According to Whitney’s theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is limited to_______________?
A. 0.43 d
B. 0.537 d
C. 0.68 d
D. 0.85 d
where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k]
As per Whitney’s theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the balanced section of a beam of width b and effective depth d is given by_______________?
A. ^acybd2
B. ^acybd2
C. 0.185acybd2
D. 0.43acybd2
where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete
Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends to_____________?
A. deflect downward
B. deflect upward
C. deflect downward or upward
D. none of the above
A beam curved in plan is designed for_______________?
A. bending moment and shear
B. bending moment and torsion
C. shear and torsion
D. bending moment, shear and torsion
In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is_______________?
A. compressive everywhere
B. tensile everywhere
C. partly compressive and partly tensile
D. zero
In prestressed concrete______________?
A. forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged
B. forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the moment
C. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change
D. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain unchanged
Normally prestressing wires are arranged in the_______________?
A. upper part of the beam
B. lower part of the beam
C. center
D. anywhere
Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning and not in post-tensioning ?
A. elastic shortening of concrete
B. shrinkage of concrete
C. creep of concrete
D. loss due to friction
Which of the following has high tensile strength ?
A. plain hot rolled wires
B. cold drawn wires
C. heat treated rolled wires
D. all have same tensile strength
Stress strain curve of high tensile steel_______________?
A. has a definite yield point
B. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
C. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
D. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress
Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and post-tensioned work respectively should not be less than__________________?
A. 35 MPa and 42 MPa
B. 42 MPa and 35 MPa
C. 42 MPa and 53 MPa
D. 53 MPa and 42 MPa
Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires_______________?
A. increases with increase in diameter of bar
B. decreases with increase in diameter of bar
C. does not depend on diameter of bar
D. none of the above

 

Chemical Engineering MCQs

Chemical Engineering MCQs
Chemical Engineering MCQs

Chemical Engineering MCQs

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Stamflay.com

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING:
The temperature at which the magnetic property of iron disappears (i.e., it becomes nonmagnetic) and its electrical conductivity & specific heat also changes, is called the ‘Curie point’, which is ________________ °C ?
A. 768
B. 908
C. 1400
D. 1539
Referring to the periodic table of elements, it is found that with increasing atomic number. The atomic size in the same___________________?
A. Period increases
B. Period decreases
C. Group increases
D. Both ‘B’ & ‘C’
With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of semiconductors_____________________?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain constant
D. Either A. or B. depends on the type of semi-conductor
The only suitable method for hardening the low carbon steel is case hardening. Which of the following is a case hardening process ?
A. Cyaniding
B. Sherardizing
C. Spheroidising
D. None of these
Filler material used in welding should have _________________ as compared to the parent metal to be welded ?
A. Lower melting temperature
B. Same melting temperature
C. Same composition
D. Both ‘B’ & ‘C’
Satellites burn off during re-entry to earth’s atmosphere, because of the ____________________?
A. Combustion with air
B. Gravitational pull by earth
C. Friction with earth’s atmosphere
D. Loss in weight of the satellite
About _________________ ton of coke is required in a cupola to produce one ton of casting ?
A. 0.03
B. 0.3
C. 0.8
D. 1.5
Joining of thin foils is preferred to be done by _____________________?
A. Gamma rays
B. X-rays
C. Microwaves
D. Gas welding
Laser welding is widely employed in the __________________ industries ?
A. Electronic
B. Structural
C. Process
D. Heavy
Which of the following test is used for distinguishing among dry oils, semi-drying oils and non drying oils ?
A. Elaiden test
B. Reichert-Meissl value test
C. Hunter value test
D. Iodine value test
Water flow in the river during flood can be categorized as the _________________ flow ?
A. Unsteady uniform
B. Unsteady non-uniform
C. Steady uniform
D. Steady non-uniform
Lap joints are preferred over butt joints in soldering/brazing, because these joints are _________________?
A. Weaker in tension but stronger in shear
B. Weaker in shear but stronger in tension
C. Stronger in both shear and tension
D. The lap joints are easily made
Gratings is associated with the measurement of____________________?
A. Linear displacement
B. Concavity/convexity
C. Surface texture
D. Flatness
Normalising does not _____________________ of a metal?
A. Improve machinability & tensile strength
B. Remove internal stresses
C. Refine the structure
D. Remove strains caused by cold working
Which of the following approaches the ideal gas behavior most closely ?
A. Wet steam
B. Saturated steam
C. Superheated steam
D. Saturated water
Which of the following hardness tests does not measure the indentation hardness of metals and alloys ?
A. Vickers hardness test
B. Shore scleroscope test
C. Brinell hardness test
D. Rockwell hardness test
Fibre reinforced plastic (FRP) are___________________?
A. Made of glass fibre and thermoplastic resins
B. Anisotropic
C. Made of thermosetting resin and glass fibre
D. Both ‘B’ & ‘C’
Window panes of aeroplanes are normally made of_____________________?
A. Perspex (PMMA)
B. Teflon (PTFE)
C. Bakelite (phenol formaldehyde)
D. Polystyrene
Babbitt lining is used on brass/bronze bearings to increase the____________________?
A. Antifriction properties
B. Compressive strength
C. Bearing resistance
D. Wear resistance
Silicon percentage in silicon steel used for electrical equipments is about______________?
A. 1
B. 4.0
C. 8
D. 14
Galvanic corrosion cannot be prevented by___________________?
A. Cathodic protection
B. Anodic protection
C. Usage of largest possible anodic area
D. Any one of these
Ceramic compounds as compared to metallic compounds ____________________ ?
A. Crystallise faster
B. Resist greater tensile stress at room temperature
C. Have higher melting temperature
D. Are better conductor of electricity at higher temperature
Air-petrol ratio for maximum power generation in spark ignition engine is about_____________________?
A. 6 : 1
B. 12 : 1
C. 18 : 1
D. 24 : 1
In an amorphous material, atoms defy any definite atomic structure and exist in random pattern just like in liquid. Which of the following is an amorphous material ?
A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Glass
______________ has the highest melting point out of the following ?
A. Tungsten
B. Zirconium
C. Molybdenum
D. Tantalum
The most serious manufacturing defect from fracture toughness point of view is____________________?
A. Surface roughness
B. Pores
C. Spherical inclusion
D. Crack
Out of the following, the best material capable of withstanding shock & vibration without the danger of cracking is ___________________?
A. Malleable iron
B. Grey cast iron
C. Chilled cast iron
D. White cast iron
Fatigue limit improvement by over stressing the metal by successively increasing the load is called coaxing. In fatigue failure, the material fails ?
A. Below the yield point
B. Above the yield point
C. Below the elastic limit
D. At the elastic limit
Which of the following is not the function of a volute casing provided in a centrifugal pump ?
A. To reduce the head loss in discharge
B. To increase the pump efficiency
C. To collect liquid from the periphery of the impeller and to transmit it to the delivery pipe at
constant velocity
D. To increase the pump discharge rate
The capacity of a spring to store energy is called the spring form co-efficient. Stiffness of a spring is measured by the____________________?
A. Ability to absorb shock
B. Capacity to store energy
C. Ratio of the wire & coil diameters
D. Load to produce unit deflection
______________________ is used as a material of construction for the blade of power saw ?
A. Wrought iron
B. Stainless steel
C. Mild steel
D. High speed steel
Addition of silicon to cast iron ___________________?
A. Promotes graphite module formation
B. Improves its ductility
C. Does not promote graphite flakes formation
D. Increases the fluidity of molten metal
The dew point temperature lines on psychrometric charts are straight inclined sloping downwards to the right. When relative humidity of moist air is 100%, then_________________?
A. Wet bulb temperature=dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature=dew point temperature
C. Saturation temperature=dew point temperature
D. All ‘A’, ‘B’ & ‘C’
The elastic strain energy of a unit length of an edge dislocation as compared to that of a screw dislocation is____________________?
A. More
B. Equal
C. Less
D. Double
The materials which fracture even at small strains are termed as brittle, while those materials which exhibit an appreciable deformation before failure are termed as__________________?
A. Rigid
B. Tough
C. Ductile
D. Plastic
A steam carrying pipeline is insulated with two layers of insulating materials with the inferior insulation material forming the inner part. If the two insulating layers are interchanged, the heat conducted will____________________?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unaffected
D. May increase or decrease; depends on the thickness of each layer
Fibrous fracture is normally encountered in the ____________________ materials?
A. Hard
B. Elastic
C. Ductile
D. Brittle
Pick out the wrong statement ?
A. A soft magnetic material should have high permeability and small area of hysteresis loop
B. Poisson’s ratio of high melting point metals is more than unity
C. Solders generally melt at less than 185°C
D. Steel produced by B.O.F process is ideally suited for manufacturing flat product
Fire in fuel gas pipelines is extinguished most effectively by _________________?
A. Spraying water
B. Blanketting the area with nitrogen atmosphere
C. Fire fighting foam
D. None of these
In fluid flow, and heat and mass transfer, one encounters (i) kinematic velocity (μ), (ii) molecular diffusivity (ζ) and thermal diffusivity (α). The units of these quantities are ?
A. μ , α and θ all have units of m/s
B. μ , α and θ all have units of m2/s
C. α and θ have units of m2/s, while μ has unit of m/s
D. α and θ have units of m/s, while μ has unit of m2/s
Addition of small amount of ________________ to grey cast iron is done to produce nodular grey cast iron ?
A. Manganese
B. Phosphorous
C. Magnesium
D. Chromium
Which of the following is the most suitable material of construction for the condenser tubes, where the cooling medium is brine (salty water) ?
A. Aluminium
B. Copper
C. Titanium
D. Stainless steel
There are one octahedral void and ______________ tetrahedral void in the closest packing of atoms ?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None of these
Temper brittleness of a material can be fairly detected by the ________________ test ?
A. Fatigue
B. Notched bar impact
C. Tensile
D. Hardness
Broaching tools are usually made of____________________?
A. Cermets
B. High speed steel
C. Tungsten carbide
D. Stellite
The main reducing agent in iron blast furnace is____________________?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Oxygen
D. Air
Magnetic permeability of iron is increased by its_____________________?
A. Decarburising
B. Alloying with cobalt
C. Purification
D. Alternate heating & cooling
The escape velocity of a body on earth which is independent of its mass is about ______________________ km/second?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 11
D. 15
Factor of safety is the ratio of the ___________________ stress to the working stress?
A. Tensile
B. Compressive
C. Yield
D. Bearing
Shaft/rotor speed is most accurately measured by a_________________?
A. Frequency counter
B. Tachometer
C. Strobometer
D. Speedometer
In chemical dehumidification process___________________?
A. Wet bulb temperature increases
B. Dry bulb temperature remains constant
C. Dew point temperature increases
D. Dry bulb temperature increases
The material used for coating the welding electrode is termed as the___________________?
A. Flux
B. Slag
C. Protective layer
D. Binder
FeO (s) + CO (g) = Fe (s) + CO2 (g), k = 0. 435 at 1173E; at equilibrium, what will be the number of moles of CO gas required to reduce one mole of FeO at 1173 K ?
A. 1.0
B. 1.3
C. 2.3
D. 3.3
A solution which resists change in its pH value on addition of acid/alkali is called the ____________________ solution?
A. Neutral
B. Ideal
C. Buffer
D. Zero pH
Maraging steels derive their strength from the following mechanism ?
A. A fine, highly dislocated and strong martensite
B. Fine dispersions of inter-metallic of Fe, Ni, Ti etc
C. Fine dispersions of alloy carbides in a ferrite matrix
D. Fine dispersions of Fe3 C nucleated on dislocations in austenite
In an eutectic system, two elements are completely____________________?
A. Soluble in solid state
B. Insoluble in liquid state
C. Insoluble in both solid & liquid state
D. Soluble in liquid state
Hot extrusion process is not used for making____________________?
A. Cast iron pipe for domestic water supply
B. Aluminium curtain rods
C. Stainless steel tubes used in furnitures
D. Any of these
Yield strength of a material is determined by the __________________ test?
A. Creep
B. Tension
C. Compression
D. Endurance
Dryness factor of steam is defined as the ratio of the mass of vapor in the mixture to the mass of the mixture. Dryness factor of steam is measured by a _______________ calorimeter ?
A. Bomb
B. Throttling
C. Junker’s
D. Boy’s
_____________________ remains constant during the adiabatic cooling of moist air?
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Relative humidity
D. Specific humidity
The most commonly used moderator in nuclear power plants is__________________?
A. Graphite
B. Light water
C. Heavy water
D. Beryllium
Basicity [%Cao + %MgO + %SiO2) of the slag in Indian blast furnace is in the range of___________________?
A. 0.7-1.0
B. 1.1-1.4
C. 1.5 – 1.8
D. 2.0 – 2.5
The dew point of moist air becomes ____________________ with decrease in its relative humidity ?
A. Less than the wet bulb temperature
B. More than the wet bulb temperature
C. More than the dry bulb temperature
D. Equal to wet bulb temperature
Thermistors are used in _____________ devices?
A. Voltage measuring
B. Temperature measuring
C. Temperature compensating
D. Both B. & C.
Annealing of cast iron__________________?
A. Softens it to facilitate machining
B. Decreases the free carbon
C. Increases the strength
D. None of these
Catalyst used in the ‘catalytic converter’ employed in automobile exhaust line for complete combustion/oxidation of carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons is__________________?
A. Alumina
B. Platinum
C. Vanadium pentoxide
D. Iron oxide
Silicon percentage in the silicon steel used for electrical appliances/equipments is_________________?
A. 0.3-0.4
B. 12-14
C. 3-4
D. 20-25
____________________ joint is mostly used for joining pipes carrying water at low pressure ?
A. Nipple
B. Socket
C. Union
D. Bell and spigot
Which of the following is an example of stress corrosion ?
A. Season cracking of brass
B. Caustic embrittlement of steel
C. Both A. & B.
D. Neither A. nor (B)
Secondary hardening in steels arises out of the _____________________?
A. Precipitation of fine alloy carbides at high temperatures
B. Refinement of ferrite grain size by working
C. Decomposition of retained austenite upon heat treatment
D. Precipitation of complex inter-metallic upon heat treatment
An ideal material for making cooking vessels should have___________________?
A. High heat capacity
B. Low heat capacity
C. High thermal conductivity
D. Both B. and C.
Drills are usually made of__________________?
A. Cermets
B. High speed steel
C. Alloy steel
D. Tungsten carbide
Pressure exerted by a liquid depends upon its_________________?
A. Surface tension
B. Density
C. Viscosity
D. Buoyancy
Brinell Hardness Number (BHN) for talc is approximately in the range of ____________________?
A. 1-5
B. 20-30
C. 100-150
D. 200-250
Vibration upto 100 kilo hertz can be most accurately measured by a ________________ type accelerometer ?
A. Preloaded spring
B. Piezoelectric
C. Bonded strain gauge
D. None of these
Which of the following is normally not found in both the S.I. (petrol) & C.I. (diesel) engines ?
A. Air filter
B. Fuel injector
C. Exhaust silencer
D. Battery
Silicon crystal can be converted to p-type semi-conductor by doping with__________________?
A. Phosphorous
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon
D. Boron
Corona discharge is related to the operation of a/an_______________________?
A. Induction motor
B. Electrostatic precipitator
C. Fast breeder reactor
D. Magneto hydrodynamic generator (MHD)
Minimum thermal efficiency of a steam boiler may be around ____________________ percent ?
A. 25
B. 45
C. 65
D. 20
Eutectic reaction for iron-carbon system occurs at a temperature of _______________ °C ?
A. 723
B. 959
C. 1147
D. 1493
Consider the equilibrium A(g) + B(g) = AB(g). When the partial pressure of A is 10-2 atm, the partial pressure of B is 10-3 atm and the partial pressure of AB is 1 atm, the equilibrium constant ‘K’ is____________________?
A. 10 atm-1
B. 105 atm-1
C. 10 (dimensionless)
D. 105 (dimensionless)
Tesla metre per ampere (T. m/A) is the unit for the measurement of_______________?
A. Magnetic susceptibility
B. Magnetic moment
C. Permeability of free space
D. Flux density
The joint for soldering is supported by binding wire made of ____________________?
A. Mild steel
B. Copper
C. Soft iron
D. Stainless steel
The bolt is subjected to _______________ when the nut is tightened by putting the washer beneath it?
A. Tension
B. Shear
C. Compression
D. Bending & tension
Which of the following is not a characteristic observed in material failure by fatigue fracture ?
A. Plastic deformation of material does not occur
B. Initiation of crack from below the surface does not occur
C. Initiation of crack occurs on the surface of the machine part
D. Presence of both rough & smooth zone with conchoidal markings in smooth zone of the
Leakage in a cooking gas cylinder is detected by___________________?
A. Radio-isotopes
B. Pouring soap solution on the surface and locating the gas bubbles
C. Halide torch
D. Pungent smell of mercaptans present in the gas
Out of the following, the alloy which has equal percentage of constituents, is__________________?
A. White metal
B. Gun metal
C. Duralumin
D. Constantan
The _________________ of a double acting reciprocating pump as compared to the single acting pump will be almost double ?
A. Flow output
B. Head developed
C. Overall efficiency
D. Weight
Which of the following is an example of cathodic protection of metals against corrosion ?
A. Painted steel
B. Galvanised iron
C. Case hardened steel
D. Lead lined reactor
Propulsion of rocket follows from the_________________?
A. Newton’s second law of motion
B. Newton’s third law of motion
C. Law of projectiles
D. Archimedes principle
With increase in ___________________ Knocking tendency in a spark ignition petrol engine decreases?
A. Supercharging
B. Wall temperature
C. Compression ratio
D. Engine speed
A psychrometer does not measure the __________________ temperature of moist air?
A. Dew point
B. Dry bulb
C. Wet bulb
D. None of these
An atom bomb works on the principle of __________________?
A. Nuclear fission
B. Nuclear fusion
C. Both the nuclear fission & fusion
D. Ionisation
Neutrons are present in all atoms except that of ___________________?
A. He
B. C
C. H
D. Ar
Principal alloying element in Elinvar (used for making hair springs for watches) is__________________?
A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Nickel
D. Zinc
Between 230 and 370°C, blue brittleness is caused in mild steel because of the_________________?
A. Immobility of dislocation
B. Strain-ageing
C. Increase in Young’s modulus
D. Strain hardening
The units of the rate constant for a second order reaction are__________________?
A. Sec-1. mole°
B. Moles1. sec-1
C. Moles-1. sec1
D. Moles1. sec1
A polymer is termed as an ‘elastomer’, if its percentage elongation is more than 100%. An elastomer is termed as ‘rubber’ if its percentage elongation is more than _______________ percent ?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
The wet bulb temperature is lower in dry air than in wet air at the same temperature. A dry bulb thermometer registers a higher temperature than a wet bulb thermometer except at ______________ percent relative humidity ?
A. 0
B. 100
C. 50
D. None of these
Even though heat transfer co-efficient in boiling liquids is large, use of fins is advantageous, when the entire surface is exposed to ________________ boiling ?
A. Film
B. Nucleate
C. Transition
D. All modes of
Normalising does not ______________________ of a metal ?
A. Improve machinability & tensile strength
B. Remove internal stresses
C. Refine the structure
D. Remove strains caused by cold working
Material of construction of the electrode used in the electric resistance welding is___________________?
A. Stainless steel
B. Graphite
C. Copper
D. Steel
Which of the following is an ore dressing operation ?
A. Classification
B. Smelting
C. Roasting
D. None of these
Shampoos are commercially not available in the form of ___________________?
A. Powder
B. Gaseous mixture
C. Solution
D. Emulsion
In multipass welds, shot peening is done after each pass to__________________?
A. Close the surface porosity
B. Break the continuity of columnar grains
C. Flatten the weldment
D. Introduce texture in the weld
Pick out the correct combination about the role of various additives used in polymers ?
A. Plasticiser: increases the polymer strength
B. Heat stabiliser: increases the maximum service temperature
C. Fillers: Does not affect the property of polymer but increases its weight
D. Lubricants: increases the flexibility of polymers
Which of the following is not used as a bearing material ?
A. Copper-lead alloys
B. Babbitts
C. Bronzes
D. Cermets
The malleability of a material is the property by virtue of which it can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets. Which of the following materials has the maximum malleability ?
A. Lead
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Wrought iron
Oxide layer formed on the non-ferrous metal surface after its annealing is__________________?
A. Removed by acid pickling
B. Hammered into the surface
C. Removed with coarse emery cloth
D. Left as such to protect the surface
Case hardening is not done by________________?
A. Nitriding
B. Hot dipping
C. Electroplating
D. Both ‘B’ & ‘C’
Upto the critical radius of insulation, added insulation, will____________________?
A. Increase the heat loss
B. Decrease heat loss and will have no effect beyond that
C. Decrease heat flux
D. Reduce convection heat loss compared to conduction heat less
Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in the presence of ______________________?
A. Dry air
B. Pure oxygen
C. Moisture
D. Sunlight
Powder metallurgy technique is used in the production of ____________________ tools ?
0
A. Tungsten carbide
B. High carbon steel
C. High speed steel
D. Drilling
Rain drops falling through atmospheric air attain limited terminal velocity, because of ____________________?
A. Upward thrust due to air
B. Viscous force exerted by air
C. Surface tension effects of water
D. Force of gravity
Volume of blast furnace slag is about _______________ times the volume of hot metal (pig iron) of the same weight ?
A. 1.5
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Colour comparator is used to measure the___________________?
A. pH value
B. Electrode potential
C. Colour intensity
D. None of these
A reduction in thermal resistance during heat transfer does not occur in the___________________?
A. Convection heat transfer by stirring the fluid and cleaning the heating surface
B. Conduction heat transfer by reduction in the material thickness and increase in the thermal
conductivity
C. Radiation heat transfer by increasing the temperature and reducing the emissivity
D. None of these
Plastics as a material of construction suffer from the drawback of low_________________?
A. Machinability
B. Density
C. Strength
D. Plastic deformation
The thickness of oxide film is y at time t. If K1, K2 and K3 are the temperature dependent constants, the parabolic law of oxidation is given by __________________?
A. y2 = 2k1t + k2
B. y = k1 ln (k2t + k3)
C. y = k1 t + k2
D. y = k1t3 + k2
Biological shield in a nuclear reactor is generally provided to protect against the__________________?
A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. Gamma rays & neutrons
D. Electrons
The most detrimental impurity in high pressure boiler feed water is ___________________?
A. Suspended salt
B. Dissolved salt
C. Silica
D. Turbidity
Sub zero treatment of steel is done to____________________?
A. Suppress martensite transformation
B. Enhance its working performance in sub zero atmosphere
C. Reduce the retained austenite in hardened steel
D. Induce temper brittleness after its hardening
In Newton’s law of viscosity, which states that the shear stress is proportional to the _____________ Co-efficient of viscosity is called dynamic or absolute viscosity(where, V = velocity, Vg = velocity gradient) ?
A. V2
B. 1/V2
C. 1/Vg
D. Vg
Which of the following is not categorised as the ore agglomeration process ?
A. Nodulising
B. Pelletising
C. Balling
D. Briquetting
Tumbling is the process of improving the ________________ of the materials/parts ?
A. Surface finish
B. Fatigue limit
C. Creep limit
D. Surface cleanliness
Young’s modulus of a material is the measure of its ___________________?
A. Stiffness
B. Malleability
C. Creep resistance
D. Tensile strength
Which of the following materials has the least scrap value ?
A. Aluminium
B. Stainless steel
C. Brass
D. Copper
Which of the following is used to produce draught in the locomotive boilers ?
A. Chimney
B. Induced draught fan
C. Forced draught fan
D. Steam jet arrangement
Alcohols are not suitable as diesel engine fuel because the cetane number of alcohols is____________________?
A. Very low which prevents their ignition by compression
B. Very high which prevents their ignition by compression
C. Zero
D. None of these
The process of removal of scale formed during hot rolling of steel is termed as_________________?
A. Descaling
B. Shot blasting
C. Pickling
D. Skimming

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download
Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download Electrical engineering Mcqs for Preparation of Job Test and interview, freshers, Students, competitive exams, etc. Multiple choice questions here are on topics such as Electrical Machines, Power Electronics, Electrical measurement & units, Utilization of Electrical Energy, Basic Electrical Engineering, Electrical Installation, Power Systems, Testing & maintenance of electrical equipment’s, etc.

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download From Our Website

Electrical Engineering Mcqs:
Which of the following is/are active elements?
A. Voltage source
B. Current source
C. Both
D. None of these.
 If P is the power of a star-connected system then what will be the power of an equivalent delta-connected system?
A. P
B. 3P
C. P/3
D. None of the above
Magnetic flux has the unit of
A. Newton
B. Ampere-turn
C. Weber
D. Tesla
The voltage induced in an inductor is represented as,
A. product of its inductance and current through it.
B. ratio of its inductance to the current through it.
C. ratio of the current through it to its inductance.
D. product of its inductance and rate of change of current through it.
Instantaneous power in inductor is proportional to the
A. product of the instantaneous current and rate of change of current.
B. square of instantaneous current.
C. square of the rate of change of current.
D Temperature of the inductor.
The unit of resistivity is
A. Ω.
B. Ω – metre.
C. Ω / metre.
D. Ω / m².
How many coulombs of charge flow through a circuit carrying a current of 10 A in 1 minute?
A. 10
B. 60
C. 600
D. 1200
The resistance of a conductor of diameter d and length l is R Ω. If the diameter of the conductor is halved and its length is doubled, the resistance will be
A. R Ω
B. 2R Ω
C. 4R Ω
D. 8R Ω
The resistivity of the conductor depends on
A. area of the conductor.
B. length of the conductor.
C. type of material.
D. none of these.
If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of electrons flowing through this circuit is
A. 0.625 × 1019
B. 1.6 × 1019
C. 1.6 × 10-19
D. 0.625 × 10-19
Which of the following are the passive elements?
A. Resistor
B. Bulb
C. Both
D. None of these.
Power dissipation in ideal inductor is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. A finite value
Inductor does not allow the sudden change of
A. current
B. voltage
C. power
D. None of the above
Capacitor does not allow the sudden change of ?
A. current
B. voltage
C. power
D. None of the above
Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is ?
A. zero
B. infinite
C. finite
D. 100 ohms
Internal resistance of ideal current source is ?
A. zero
B. infinite
C. finite
B. 100 ohms
Which quantity should be measured by the voltmeter ?
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Power
D. Speed
Which quantity consists of a unit 1KWh ?
A. Energy
B. Time
C. Power
D. Charge
Which of the following has no units?
A. Permeability
B. Moment of a magnet
C. Magnetic susceptibility
D Permittivity
Which of the following quantities consists of SI unit as WATT ?
A. Force
B. Charge
C. Current
D. Power
A Triac is a ______________?
A. 2 terminal switch
B. 2 terminal bilateral switch
C. 3 terminal bilateral switch
D. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a _________?
A. Diac
B. Triac
C. Silicon controlled-rectifier SCR
D. None of above
A silicon controlled racitifier (SCR) is a ____________?
A. Unijunction device
B. Device with three junction
C. Device with four junction
D. None of the above
A PNPN device having two gates is ___________?
A. Diac
B. Triac
C. SUS
D. BCS
A thyristor is basically________?
A. PNPN device
B. A combination of diac and triac
C. A set of SCRs
D. A set if SCR,diac and triac
A Triac has three terminals viz ___________?
A. Drain, source, gate
B. Two main terminal and a gate terminal
C. Cathode, anode, gate
D. None of the above
An SCR has half cycle surge current rating of 3000 A for 50 Hz supply. One cycle surge current will be_____?
A. 1500 A.
B. 6000 A.
C. 2121.32 A.
D. 4242.64 A.
The typical value of SCR for modern alternator is____________?
A. 1.5.
B. 0.5.
C. 1.0.
D. 1.2.
An SCR is considered to be a semi controlled device because_______?
A. it can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse.
B. it conducts only during one half cycle of an alternating current wave.
C. it can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse.
D. it can be turned ON only during one half cycle of an AC.
A single phase full bridge inverter can operated in load commutation mode in case load consist of______?
A. RL.
B. RLC underdamped.
C. RLC overdamped.
D. RLC critically damped
A single phase one pulse controlled circuit has a resistance R and counter emf E load 400 sin(314 t) as the source voltage. For a load counter emf of 200 V, the range of firing angle control is _____?
A. 30° to 150°.
B. 30° to 180°.
C. 60° to 120°.
D. 60° to 180°.
A step up chopper has input voltage 110 V and output voltage 150 V. The value of duty cycle is_____?
A. 0.32
B. 0.67
C. 0.45
D. 0.27
Which statement is true for latching current ___________?
A.It is related to turn off process of the device.
B. It is related to conduction process of device.
C. It is related to turn on process of the device.
D. Both C and D.
If holding current of a thyristor is 2 mA then latching current should be_____?
A. 0.01 A.
B. 0.002 A.
C. 0.009 A.
D. 0.004 A.
In reverse blocking mode of a thyristor______?
A. junction J2 is in reverse bias and J1, J3 is in forward bias.
B. junction J3 is in forward bias and J1, J2 in reverse bias.
C. junction J1, J3 is in reverse bias and J2 is in forward bias.
D. junction J1 and J2 is in forward bias and J3 is in reverse bias.
In forward blocking mode of a thyristor________?
A. junction J2 is in reverse bias and J1, J3 is in forward bias.
B. junction J3 is in forward bias and J1, J2 is in reverse bias.
C. Junction J1, J3 is in reverse bias and J2 is in forward bias.
D. Junction J1 and J2 is in forward bias and J3 is in reverse bias.
For an SCR gate – cathode characteristic is a straight line of 130. For triggered source volume of 15 V and allowable gate power dissipation of 0.5 W compute the gate source resistance_____?
A. 111.9 Ω.
B. 11.19 Ω.
C. 108 Ω.
D. 115 Ω
The function of snubber circuit connected across the SCR is to___________?
A. Suppress dV / dt.
B. Increase dV / dt.
C. Decrease dV / dt.
D. Decrease di / dt.
A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in case load consists of____________?
A. RL.
B. RLC underdamped.
C. RLC overdamped.
D. RLC critically damped.
Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by using
A. 23 mA.
B. 40 mA.
C. 10 mA.
D. 60 mA.
Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by using____________?
A. voltage clamping device.
B. fuse.
C. heat sink.
D. snubber circuit.
Practical way of obtaining static voltage equalization in series connected SCRs is by the use of____________?
A. One resistor across the string
B. Resistors of the same value across each SCR
C. Resistors of different values across each SCR
D. One resistor in series with each SCR
Switching frequency of SITH is____________?
A. 5 KHz
B. 10 KHz
C. 60 KHz
D. 100 KHz
Example of a voltage clamping device______________?
A. fast acting fuse
B. snubber circuit
C. metal oxide varistor
D. aluminium block
The maximum di/dt in a SCR is____________?
A. Directly proportional to supply voltage
B. Directly proportional to inductance in the circuit
C. Inversely proportional to supply voltage
D. Both A and B
The latching current of GTO should be of order
A. 100 mA
B. 500 mA
C. 1 A
D. 2 A
Under over voltage condition impedance offered by the voltage clamping device is__________?
A. low
B. High
C. moderate
D. infinity
Which semiconductor device acts like a diode and two transistor?
A. UJT
B. Diac
C. Triac
D. SCR
Under normal operating condition voltage clamping device offers impedance of_________?
A. high value.
B. low value.
C. zero value.
D. moderate value.
What is used to protect the SCR from over current ________________?
A. CB and fuse.
B. Heat sink.
C. Snubber circuit.
D. Voltage clamping device.
If the anode current is 800 A, then the amount of current required to turn off the GTO is about____________?
A. 20 A
B. 200 A
C. 600 A
D. 400 A
CB used for over current protection of thyristor operates when the fault current is__________?
A. of long period
B. of short duration
C. both (A) and (B)
D. neither (A) nor (B)
A power semiconductor may undergo damage due to____________?
A. High di/dt
B. High dv/dt
C. Low di/dt
D. Low dv/dt
When a large surge current of very short duration flows through a thyristor then which one of the following device will operate to protect the thyristor ___________?
A. CB
B. Snubber circuit
C. Voltage clamping device
D. Fast acting current limiting device (FACL fuse)
Which of the following is disadvantage of fast recovery diodes?
A. Recovery is only 5 µs
B. Recovery is only 50 µs
C. Doping is carried out
D. None of these
Leakage current flows through the thyristor in_________?
A. forward blocking mode
B. reverse blocking mode
C. both forward and reverse blocking mode
D. forward conduction mode
Which triggering is the most reliable____________?
A. Forward voltage triggering
B. Gate triggering
C. dV / dt triggering
D. Thermal triggering
Which of following devices has highest di/dt and dv/dt capability?
A. SIT
B. SITH
C. GTO
D. SCR
Let of a thyristor Vc1, Vc2, Vc3 are forward break over voltage for gate current Ig1, Ig2, Ig3 respectively. Then________________?
A. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 > Ig2 > Ig3.
B. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 < Ig2 < Ig3.
C. Vc1 = Vc2 = Vc3 any value of Ig.
D. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 ≥ Ig2 &Atil
BCT is used for____________?
A. High power phase control
B. High power current control
C. Low power current control
D. Low power phase control
The capacitance of reversed bised junction J2 in a thyristor is CJ2 = 20 pF and can be assumed to be independant of the off state voltage. The limiting value of the charging current to turn on the thyristor is 16 mA. What is the critical value of dv/dt?
A. 600 V/µs
B. 800 V/µs
C. 1200 V/µs
D. 1000 V/µs
SCR will be turned off when anode current is_______________?
A. < latching current but greater than holding current and gate signal is 0.
B. less than holding current.
C. < latching current but greater than holding current and gate signal is present.
D. both (A) and (B).
After proper turn on of thyristor____________?
A. gate signal is always present
B. gate signal must be removed
C. gate signal should present but can be removed
D. none of the above.
Gate circuit or triggering circuit of a thyristor is
A. lower power circuit.
B. high power circuit.
C. magnetic circuit.
D. may be low power or high power circuit
Thyristor is nothing but a____________?
A. Controlled transistor
B. Controlled switch
C. Amplifier with higher gain
D. Amplifier with large current gain
How can we protect SCR from thermal conditions _____________?
A. Use of snubber circuit.
B. Using heat sink.
C. Using CB and fuse.
D. Using equalizing circuit
Which of the following is used in heat sink_____________?
A. Iron
B. Aluminium
C. Carbon
D Silver
A thyristor can termed as__________?
A. AC switch
B. DC switch
C. Both a and B
D. Square wave switch
Materials used in heat sink should have_____________?
A. high thermal conductivity
B. large surface area
C. high melting point
D. All of these
Compared to transistor, _________ have lower on state conduction losses and higher power handling capability?
A. TRIACs
B. Semi conductor diodes
C. MOSFETs
D. Thyristor
What is used to protect a thyristor from high di / dt conditions__________?
A. Fuse.
B. Snubber circuit
C. Inductor
D. Voltage clamping device
COOLMOS device can be used in application up to power range of___________?
A. 1 KVA
B. 2 KVA
C. 500 VA
D. 100 KVA
Which of the following is used in SCR to protect from high dV / dt__________________?
A. Snubber circuit
B. Fuse
C. Equalizing circuit
D. Circuit breaker
IGBT combines the advantages of_____________?
A. BJTs and SITs
B. BJTs and MOSFETs
C. SITs and MOSFETs
D. None of these
What happen due to high di / dt____________?
A. Breakdown of junction
B. Local hot spot
C. Insulation failure
D. None of these
Thermal voltage VT can be given by____________?
A. Kq/T
B. KT/q
C. qT/K
D. (K2/q)(T + 1/T – 1)
What may happen high dV / dt____________?
A. Unwanted turn ON
B. Breakdown of J2 junction
C. Both A and B
D. Anyone of these
Why resistor is used in Snubber circuit_________________ ?
A. To minimize the loss
B. To minimize the charging current
C. To minimize the discharging current
D. All of these
Snubber circuit is used with SCR_________________?
A. in series
B. in parallel
C. either series or parallel
D. anti parallel
Which one is most suitable power device for high frequency (>100 KHz) switching application?
A. BJT
B. Power MOSFET
C. Schottky diode
D. Microwave transistor
Delay time is defined by the interval when_______________?
A. gate current increases from 90 % to 100 % of its final value
B. anode current reaches 10 % from forward leakage current
C. anode voltage drops from 100 % to 90 % of its actual value
D. all of these
A modern power semiconductor device that combines the characteristic of BJT and MOSFET is_____________?
A. IGBT
B. FCT
C. MCT
D. GTO
Rise time is defined by the interval when____________?
A. gate current rises from 90 % to 100 % of it final value
B. anode voltage drops from 90 % to 10 % of its initial value
C. anode current rises 10 % to 90 % of its final value
D. both B and C
A power MOSFET has three terminals called___________?
A. Collector, emitter and gate
B. Drain, source and gate
C. Drain, source and base
D. Collector, emitter and base
The turn-on time of an SCR with inductive load is 20 µs. The puls train frequency is 2.5 KHz with a mark/space ratio of 1/10, then SCR will___________?
A. Turn on
B. Not turn on
C. Turn on if inductance is removed
D. Turn on if pulse frequency us increased to two times
Spread time is defined as the interval during which_____________?
A. anode voltage drops from 10 % of its initial value to zero
B. anode current rises from 90 % to its final value
C. both (A) and (B)
D. anode current rises from 10 % to 90 % of its final value
Maximum power loss occurs during_________________?
A. delay time
B. rise time
C. spread time
D. all
The reverse recovery time of diode is trr = 3 μs and the rate off all of the diode current is di/dt = 30 A/μs. The storage charge current QRR is___________?
A. 130 μs
B. 135 μs
C. 140 μs
D. 145 μs
The typical time of rising time lies between______________?
A. 10 – 20 µs
B. 40 – 60 µs
C. 1 – 4 µs
D. 90 – 100 µs
SITH is also known as___________?
A. Filled controlled diode
B. Filled controlled rectifier
C. Silicon controlled rectifier
D. None of these
A GTO can be turned on by applying___________?
A. Positive gate signal
B. Positive drain signal
C. Positive source signal
D. None of these
During which time maximum conduction spreading take place in the thyristor during turn ON?
A. Delay time
B. Spread time
C. Rise time
D. Same for every case
Which of the following is true about SIT?
A. SIT is a high power, high frequency device
B. SIT is a high power, low frequency device
C. SIT is a high power, high voltage device
D. SIT is a low power, high frequency device
During reverse recovery time__________________?
A. charge carrier of junction J2 recombined
B. charge carrier of junction J1 is swept out
C. charge carrier of junction J3 is swept out
D. both B and C
During gate recovery time_____________?
A. charge carriers of J2 junction recombined
B. charge carriers of J2 junction is swept out
C. charge carrier of J1 junction removed
D. charge carriers of J3 junction is removed
Power transistor are type of___________?
A. B.JTs
B. MOSFETs
C. IGBTs
D. All of above
Typical range of thyristor turn OFF time is______________?
A. 3 – 10 µs
B. 3 – 50 µs
C. 3 – 100 µs
D. 3 – 500 µs
Which of following is normally ON device?
A. SIT
B. BJT
C. TRIAC
D. IGBT
Which statement is true ?
A. Reverse recovery time ( trr ) > gate recovery time (tgr)
B. Device turn OFF time ( tq ) > reverse recover time (trr)
C. Circuit turn OFF time > device turn OFF time ( tq )
D. All of these
Which of following is not a power transistor?
A. IGBTs
B. COOLMOS
C. TRIAC
D. SITS
ON state voltage drop across SCR lie between the range_____________?
A. 0 – 0.5 V.
B. 0.5 – 1 V.
C. 1 – 1.5 V.
D. 1.5 – 2 V.
Which following is a two terminal three layer device?
A. BJT
B. Power dioed
C. MOSFET
D. None of above
SCRs are used in series to meet_______________?
A. high current demand
B. low voltage demand
C. low current demand
D. high voltage demand
Dynamic equalising circuit is useful____________?
A. To limit di / dt of SCR
B. To limit dV / dt of SCR
C. For voltage equalisation
D. Both B and C
To meet high current demand we use SCRs in______________?
A. series connection.
B. parallel connection.
C. anti parallel connection.
D. both B and C.
Anode current in an SCR consists of____________?
A. holes only
B. electrons only
C. either electron or holes
D. Both electron and holes
By which one of the following we can measure the reliability of a string_____________?
A. String efficient
B. Reliability factor
C. Factor of safety
D. Derating factor
For series connected SCR’s dynamic equalising circuit consists of___________?
A. R and C in series but with diode across C
B. R and C in series but with diode across R
C. Series R and diode with C across R
D. Series R and diode with C across R
A thyristor string is made of a no. of SCR connected in series and parallel. The string have volume and current of 11 KV and 4 KA. The voltage and current rating of available SCRs are 1800 V and 1000 A. For a string efficiency of 90 % let the number of SCRs in series and parallel are a and b respectively. Then the value of a and b will be_____________?
A. 5, 7
B. 4, 6
C. 7, 5
D. 6, 4
Maximum di / dt in a SCR is________?
A. Directly proportional to Vm of supply voltage
B. Inversely proportional to Vm of supply voltage
C. Inversely proportional to L in the circuit
D. Both A and C
60 thyrsistors are connected in series and parallel to form a 10 KV and 5.5 KA switch. Each thyristor is rated for 1.2 KV, 1 KA. The no. of parallel path are 6. The efficiency of the switch is______________________?
A. 76.3 %
B. 91.6 %
C. 83.3 %
D. 90.9 %
A string of n parallel SCRs is operated at 72 KA, the rating of each SCR is 1 KA. If derating factor of the string is 0.1. value of n will be___________?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90
Dynamic equalizing circuit is used for________________?
A. equal division of voltage across each thyristor
B. equal division of current through each thyristor in parallel
C. equal division of voltage across each thyristor in parallel
D. equal division of current through each thyristor in series
Unipolar modulation is generally used in____________?
A. AC – AC converters
B. AC – DC converters
C. DC – AC converters
D. DC – DC converters
4 thyristors rated 200 V in series. The operating voltage of the string is 600 V. Derating factor of the string is_____________________?
A. 0.75
B. 0.7
C. 0.2
D. 0.25
The power demand can be estimated approximately by___________?
A. Load survey method
B. Mathematical method
C. Statistical method
D. Economic parameters
What is the advantage of HRC fuses over Rewirable fuses?
A. High speed operation
B. High rupturing capacity
C. No ageing effect
D. All of the above
A rectifier with an external low pass filter is an example of______________?
A. Indirect switch matrix circuits
B. Direct switch matrix circuits
C. Embedded converters
D. All of these
If a shunt motor is started with its field winding open then?
A. It will rotate at the same speed as that with its field winding closed
B. It will rotate at less speed as that with its field winding closed
C. It will rotate at dangerously high speed
D. None of these
In ac – dc conversion, when the switch is closed then the sum of voltages around the loop is____________?
A. Zero
B. Non zero
C. Equal to the sum of voltage when switch is open
D. Twice of the voltage when switch is open
An ideal switch is___________?
A. Lossless
B. Carry current in any direction when it is on
C. Does not carry any current in any direction when it is off
D. All of these
Electrical power output in a d.c. generator is equal to____________?
A. Electrical power developed in armature – copper losses
B. Mechanical power input – iron and friction losses
C. Electrical power developed in armature – iron and copper losses
D. Mechanical power input – iron and friction losses – copper losses
IGBT stands for___________?
A. Insulated gate bipolar transistor
B. Insulated gate bidirectional transistor
C. Inductive gate bipolar transistor
D. Inductive gate bidirectional transistor
The switching function of semiconductor devices can be characterized with___________?
A. Duty ratio only
B. Frequency only
C. Duty ratio and frequency
D. Duty ratio, frequency and time delay
Number of PN junction in an SCR is____________?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
AC power in a load can be controlled by using____________?
A. Two SCR’s in parallel opposition
B. Two SCR’s in series
C. Three SCR’s in series
D. Four SCR’s in series
In a silicon controlled rectifier, the load is connected___________?
A. Across anode
B. In series with anode
C. Across cathode
D. In series with cathode
An SCR is made up of silicon because?
A. silicon has large leakage current than germanium
B. silicon has small leakage current than germanium
C. silicon has small leakage voltage than germanium
D. silicon has large leakage voltage than germanium
Anode of an operational SCR is _______________?
A. Always positive w.r.t cathode
B. Always negative w.r.t anode
C. Always positive w.r.t anode
D. Always negative w.r.t cathode
If the gate voltage of an SCR is removed, then the_______________?
A. anode current decreases
B. anode current does not decrease at all
C. anode current increases
D. cathode current increases
The output power of the cascaded amplifier / attenuator system can be determined using___________?
A. Actual gain of amplifier
B. Actual gain of amplifier and attenuator
C. Gain in dB of amplifier and attenuator
D. Actual gain of attenuator
A single phase ac – dc converter is also known as____________?
A. rectifier
B. inverter
C. chopper
D. regulator
In a single phase full wave rectifier, during blocking state the pea inverse voltage of diode is______________?
A. V m
B. 2 V m
C. V m / 2
D. 4 V m
LISN is a device used to measure conducted emissions. LISN stands for_____________?
A. Line integrated stabilization network
B. Line impedance stabilization network
C. Line integrated stored network
D. Laser integrated stabilization networking
In a full wave rectifier, the rectification ratio is approximately equal to____________?
A. 61%
B. 71%
C. 81%
D. 91%
For power output higher than 15 kW, the suitable rectifier is________________?
A. Single phase
B. 3 phase
C. Poly phase
D. Only (b) and (c)
In current commutated DC-DC choppers, the voltage spike appears across the load when_____________?
A. Voltage across the commutating inductances collapses
B. The capacitance voltage adds to the supply voltage
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download

Electrical Engineering MCQs for NTS FPSC Test Preparation

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download
Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download

Electrical Engineering MCQs for NTS FPSC Test Preparation

Electrical Engineering MCQs for NTS FPSC Test Preparation

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Stamflay.com

The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________?
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________?
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________?
A. cracking and warping of bricks
B. loss of cohesion
C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks
D. none of the above
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia
The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________?
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying
The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________?
A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
D. none of the above
Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks
Pug mill is used for_______________?
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?
A. lime stone and alumina
B. silica and alkalies
C. alumina and iron
D. alkalies and magnesium
The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________?
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side
Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________?
A. it takes less time for burning
B. it gives more output of first class bricks
C. it has less initial cost
D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________?
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550
Quick lime is_______________?
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium oxide
C. calcium hydroxide
D. none of the above
Quick lime is (1) slow in setting (2) rapid in slacking (3) good in strength The correct answer is____________?
A. only (1)
B. only (2)
C. both (1) and (2)
D. both (2) and (3)
Glazing is used to make earthenware______________?
A. hard
B. soft
C. porous
D. impervious
Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________?
A. burning of lime stone
B. burning of kankar
C. adding water to quick lime
D. calcination of pure clay
The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________?
A. lime and silica
B. lime and alumina
C. silica and alumina
D. lime and iron
Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the_______________?
A. setting time of cement
B. soundness of cement
C. tensile strength of cement
D. compressive strength of cement
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than_____________?
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 600 minutes
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is____________?
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite
As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be_______________?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 10 hours
Study the following statements. (1) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (2) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing, (3) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (4) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar. The correct answer is______________?
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (1) and (2)
D. (3) and (4)
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________?
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water
The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is_________________?
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. all of the above
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________?
A. 50 mm
B. 70.6 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 150 mm
Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________?
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate
According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than________________?
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa
With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
D. first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases__________________?
A. bleeding
B. shrinkage
C. permeability
D. heat of hydration
The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________?
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm
After storage, the strength of cement________________?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. may increase or decrease
The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Gypsum consists of______________?
A. H2S and C02
B. CaS04 and H20
C. Lime and H20
D. C02 and calcium
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of___________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:6
Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is_______________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is______________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur
Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are_______________?
A. iron ore, coal and sulphur
B. iron ore, carbon and sulphur
C. iron ore, coal and lime stone
D. iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about_________________?
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2
The most commonly used retarder in cement is_________________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is_____________?
A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
B. to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
C. to render the concrete more water tight
D. to improve the workability of concrete mix
Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. mild steel
D. high carbon steel
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________?
A. 0.2 liter
B. 0.4 liter
C. 0.6 liter
D. 0.8 liter
In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as_______________?
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond
The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually______________?
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
D. none of the above
Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of______________________?
A. wood work
B. iron work
C. both wood work and iron work
D. none of the above
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
D. none of the above
Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is______________?
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is_______________?
A. less than 0.25
B. between 0.25 and 0.7
C. between 0.7 and 1.5
D. greater than 1.5
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________?
A. along the direction of bedding planes
B. at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
C. at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
D. perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
A queen closer is a______________?
A. brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
B. brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
C. brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
D. brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________?
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm
Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer
The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is____________?
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________?
A. single flemish bond
B. double flemish bond
C. English bond
D. zigzag bond
Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________?
A. half brick thick
B. one brick thick
C. one and a half bricks thick
D. two bricks thick
Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________?
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are_______________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more
The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than_____________?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to_________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4
Single flemish bond consists of___________________?
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to_________________?
A. increase the depth of foundation
B. drain the soil
C. compact the soil
D. replace the poor soi
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to______________?
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm
The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________?
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring
Depth or height of the arch is the________________?
A. perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
B. vertical distance between springing line and intrados
C. perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
D. none of the above
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________?
A. friction pile
B. sheet pile
C. batter pile
D. anchor pile
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_____________?
A. compacting the soil
B. draining the soil
C. increasing the depth of foundation
D. grouting
The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is_______________?
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.7 m
C. 0.9 m
D. 1.2 m
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as______________?
A. intrados
B. rise
C. spandril
D. extrados
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is_______________?
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch
The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as_____________________?
A. haunch
B. spandril
C. voussoirs
D. skewbacks
In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for________________?
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
D. none of the above
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is______________?
 A. pitched and sloping roof
B. flat roof
C. shell roof
D. none of the above
The lintels are preferred to arches because______________?
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above
The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is__________________?
A. mortise and tennon joint
B. oblique mortise and tennon joint
C. butt joint
D. mitred joint
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as_____________?
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof
The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called______________?
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter
Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for________________?
A. coastal regions
B. plain regions
C. covering large areas
D. all of the above
Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in________________?
A. two directions without break in the slope on each side
B. two directions with break in the slope on each side
C. four directions without break in the slope on each side
D. four directions with break in the slope on each side
The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as______________?
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of________________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
The function of cleats in a roof truss is______________?
A. to support the common rafter
B. to support purlins
C. to prevent the purlins from tilting
D. all of the above
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of______________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
The function of king post in a king post roof truss is_______________?
A. to support the frame work of the roof
B. to receive the ends of principal rafter
C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward
D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________?
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
C. 60° and 10°
D. 40° and 25°
Sum of tread and rise must lie between_______________?
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm
The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to______________?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. no limit
Minimum width of landing should be_______________?
A. equal to width of stairs
B. half the width of stairs
C. twice the width of stairs
D. one fourth the width of stairs
The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as_________________?
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings
The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. no limit
The term string is used for______________?
A. the underside of a stair
B. outer projecting edge of a tread
C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
D. a vertical member between two treads
In a colar beam roof_______________?
A. there is no horizontal tie beam
B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________?
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is_________________?
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
D. none of the above
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has (1) high compressive strength (2) high tensile strength (3) low compressive strength (4) low tensile strength The correct answer is_________________?
A. (1) and (2)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (1)and(4)
Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in__________?
1. better workability
2. better resistance to freezing and thawing
3. lesser workability
4. less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is:
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1)and(4)
C. ((2)and (3)
D. (3)and (4)
The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________?
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic
The stopping sight distance depends upon_______________?
A. total reaction time of driver
B. speed of vehicle
C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above
Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is________________?
A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet
Camber in the road is provided for_______________?
A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
D. none of the above
On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal to______________?
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance
The shoulder provided along the road edge should be_______________?
A. rougher than the traffic lanes
B. smoother than the traffic lanes
C. of same colour as that of the pavement
D. of very low load bearing capacity
When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________?
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving
For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber is_______________?
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60
The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is______________?
A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey
B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey
Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming______________?
A. rectangular or block road pattern
B. radial or star and block road pattern
C. radial or star and circular road pattern
D. radial or star and grid road pattern
Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance is_______________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed
The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________?
A. overtaking sight distance
B. two times the overtaking sight distance
C. three times the overtaking sight distance
D. five times the overtaking sight distance
Select the correct statement______________?
A. Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population
B. Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km
C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway
D. Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while calculating the length of roads
Reaction time of a driver_______________?
A. increases with increase in speed
B. decreases with increase in speed
C. is same for all speeds
D. none of the above
If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two way traffic is_________________?
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m
If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be________________?
A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction
The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations is_____________?
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph
The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is_______________?
A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades
Stopping sight distance is always_______________?
A. less than overtaking sight distance
B. equal to overtaking sight distance
C. more than overtaking sight distance
D. none of the above
The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________?
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%
For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced by_____________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%
For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation increases with_______________?
A. increase in both speed and radius of curve
B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve
C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain terrain is_______________?
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber
On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure on the outer wheels will be_________________?
A. more than the pressure on inner wheels
B. less than the pressure on inner wheels
C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels
The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the pavement_______________?
A. is preferable in steep terrain
B. results in balancing the earthwork
C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
D. does not change the vertical alignment of road

 

Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions MCQs

Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download
Electrical Engineering MCQs for Test Preparation Free PDF Download

Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions MCQs

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Stamflay.com

Which of the following is/are active elements?
A. Voltage source
B. Current source
C. Both
D. None of these.
 If P is the power of a star connected system then what will be power of an equivalent delta connected system?
A. P
B. 3P
C. P/3
D. None of the above
Magnetic flux has the unit of
A. Newton
B. Ampere-turn
C. Weber
D. Tesla
The voltage induced in an inductor is represented as,
A. product of its inductance and current through it.
B. ratio of its inductance to the current through it.
C. ratio of the current through it to its inductance.
D. product of its inductance and rate of change of current through it.
Instantaneous power in inductor is proportional to the
A. product of the instantaneous current and rate of change of current.
B. square of instantaneous current.
C. square of the rate of change of current.
D Temperature of the inductor.
The unit of resistivity is
A. Ω.
B. Ω – metre.
C. Ω / metre.
D. Ω / m².
How many coulombs of charge flow through a circuit carrying a current of 10 A in 1 minute?
A. 10
B. 60
C. 600
D. 1200
The resistance of a conductor of diameter d and length l is R Ω. If the diameter of the conductor is halved and its length is doubled, the resistance will be
A. R Ω
B. 2R Ω
C. 4R Ω
D. 8R Ω
The resistivity of the conductor depends on
A. area of the conductor.
B. length of the conductor.
C. type of material.
D. none of these.
If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of electrons flowing through this circuit is
A. 0.625 × 1019
B. 1.6 × 1019
C. 1.6 × 10-19
D. 0.625 × 10-19
Which of the following are the passive elements?
A. Resistor
B. Bulb
C. Both
D. None of these.
Power dissipation in ideal inductor is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. A finite value
Inductor does not allow the sudden change of
A. current
B. voltage
C. power
D. None of the above
Capacitor does not allow the sudden change of ?
A. current
B. voltage
C. power
D. None of the above
Internal resistance of ideal voltage source is ?
A. zero
B. infinite
C. finite
D. 100 ohms
Internal resistance of ideal current source is ?
A. zero
B. infinite
C. finite
B. 100 ohms
Which quantity should be measured by the voltmeter ?
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Power
D. Speed
Which quantity consists of a unit 1KWh ?
A. Energy
B. Time
C. Power
D. Charge
Which of the following has no units?
A. Permeability
B. Moment of a magnet
C. Magnetic susceptibility
D Permittivity
Which of the following quantities consists of SI unit as WATT ?
A. Force
B. Charge
C. Current
D. Power
A Triac is a ______________?
A. 2 terminal switch
B. 2 terminal bilateral switch
C. 3 terminal bilateral switch
D. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a _________?
A. Diac
B. Triac
C. Silicon controlled-rectifier SCR
D. None of above
A silicon controlled racitifier (SCR) is a ____________?
A. Unijunction device
B. Device with three junction
C. Device with four junction
D. None of the above
A PNPN device having two gates is ___________?
A. Diac
B. Triac
C. SUS
D. BCS
A thyristor is basically________?
A. PNPN device
B. A combination of diac and triac
C. A set of SCRs
D. A set if SCR,diac and triac
A Triac has three terminals viz ___________?
A. Drain, source, gate
B. Two main terminal and a gate terminal
C. Cathode, anode, gate
D. None of the above
An SCR has half cycle surge current rating of 3000 A for 50 Hz supply. One cycle surge current will be_____?
A. 1500 A.
B. 6000 A.
C. 2121.32 A.
D. 4242.64 A.
The typical value of SCR for modern alternator is____________?
A. 1.5.
B. 0.5.
C. 1.0.
D. 1.2.
An SCR is considered to be a semi controlled device because_______?
A. it can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse.
B. it conducts only during one half cycle of an alternating current wave.
C. it can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse.
D. it can be turned ON only during one half cycle of an AC.
A single phase full bridge inverter can operated in load commutation mode in case load consist of______?
A. RL.
B. RLC underdamped.
C. RLC overdamped.
D. RLC critically damped
A single phase one pulse controlled circuit has a resistance R and counter emf E load 400 sin(314 t) as the source voltage. For a load counter emf of 200 V, the range of firing angle control is _____?
A. 30° to 150°.
B. 30° to 180°.
C. 60° to 120°.
D. 60° to 180°.
A step up chopper has input voltage 110 V and output voltage 150 V. The value of duty cycle is_____?
A. 0.32
B. 0.67
C. 0.45
D. 0.27
Which statement is true for latching current ___________?
A.It is related to turn off process of the device.
B. It is related to conduction process of device.
C. It is related to turn on process of the device.
D. Both C and D.
If holding current of a thyristor is 2 mA then latching current should be_____?
A. 0.01 A.
B. 0.002 A.
C. 0.009 A.
D. 0.004 A.
In reverse blocking mode of a thyristor______?
A. junction J2 is in reverse bias and J1, J3 is in forward bias.
B. junction J3 is in forward bias and J1, J2 in reverse bias.
C. junction J1, J3 is in reverse bias and J2 is in forward bias.
D. junction J1 and J2 is in forward bias and J3 is in reverse bias.
In forward blocking mode of a thyristor________?
A. junction J2 is in reverse bias and J1, J3 is in forward bias.
B. junction J3 is in forward bias and J1, J2 is in reverse bias.
C. Junction J1, J3 is in reverse bias and J2 is in forward bias.
D. Junction J1 and J2 is in forward bias and J3 is in reverse bias.
For an SCR gate – cathode characteristic is a straight line of 130. For triggered source volume of 15 V and allowable gate power dissipation of 0.5 W compute the gate source resistance_____?
A. 111.9 Ω.
B. 11.19 Ω.
C. 108 Ω.
D. 115 Ω
The function of snubber circuit connected across the SCR is to___________?
A. Suppress dV / dt.
B. Increase dV / dt.
C. Decrease dV / dt.
D. Decrease di / dt.
A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in case load consists of____________?
A. RL.
B. RLC underdamped.
C. RLC overdamped.
D. RLC critically damped.
Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by using
A. 23 mA.
B. 40 mA.
C. 10 mA.
D. 60 mA.
Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by using____________?
A. voltage clamping device.
B. fuse.
C. heat sink.
D. snubber circuit.
Practical way of obtaining static voltage equalization in series connected SCRs is by the use of____________?
A. One resistor across the string
B. Resistors of the same value across each SCR
C. Resistors of different values across each SCR
D. One resistor in series with each SCR
Switching frequency of SITH is____________?
A. 5 KHz
B. 10 KHz
C. 60 KHz
D. 100 KHz
Example of a voltage clamping device______________?
A. fast acting fuse
B. snubber circuit
C. metal oxide varistor
D. aluminium block
The maximum di/dt in a SCR is____________?
A. Directly proportional to supply voltage
B. Directly proportional to inductance in the circuit
C. Inversely proportional to supply voltage
D. Both A and B
The latching current of GTO should be of order
A. 100 mA
B. 500 mA
C. 1 A
D. 2 A
Under over voltage condition impedance offered by the voltage clamping device is__________?
A. low
B. High
C. moderate
D. infinity
Which semiconductor device acts like a diode and two transistor?
A. UJT
B. Diac
C. Triac
D. SCR
Under normal operating condition voltage clamping device offers impedance of_________?
A. high value.
B. low value.
C. zero value.
D. moderate value.
What is used to protect the SCR from over current ________________?
A. CB and fuse.
B. Heat sink.
C. Snubber circuit.
D. Voltage clamping device.
If the anode current is 800 A, then the amount of current required to turn off the GTO is about____________?
A. 20 A
B. 200 A
C. 600 A
D. 400 A
CB used for over current protection of thyristor operates when the fault current is__________?
A. of long period
B. of short duration
C. both (A) and (B)
D. neither (A) nor (B)
A power semiconductor may undergo damage due to____________?
A. High di/dt
B. High dv/dt
C. Low di/dt
D. Low dv/dt
When a large surge current of very short duration flows through a thyristor then which one of the following device will operate to protect the thyristor ___________?
A. CB
B. Snubber circuit
C. Voltage clamping device
D. Fast acting current limiting device (FACL fuse)
Which of the following is disadvantage of fast recovery diodes?
A. Recovery is only 5 µs
B. Recovery is only 50 µs
C. Doping is carried out
D. None of these
Leakage current flows through the thyristor in_________?
A. forward blocking mode
B. reverse blocking mode
C. both forward and reverse blocking mode
D. forward conduction mode
Which triggering is the most reliable____________?
A. Forward voltage triggering
B. Gate triggering
C. dV / dt triggering
D. Thermal triggering
Which of following devices has highest di/dt and dv/dt capability?
A. SIT
B. SITH
C. GTO
D. SCR
Let of a thyristor Vc1, Vc2, Vc3 are forward break over voltage for gate current Ig1, Ig2, Ig3 respectively. Then________________?
A. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 > Ig2 > Ig3.
B. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 < Ig2 < Ig3.
C. Vc1 = Vc2 = Vc3 any value of Ig.
D. Vc1 > Vc2 > Vc3 when Ig1 ≥ Ig2 &Atil
BCT is used for____________?
A. High power phase control
B. High power current control
C. Low power current control
D. Low power phase control
The capacitance of reversed bised junction J2 in a thyristor is CJ2 = 20 pF and can be assumed to be independant of the off state voltage. The limiting value of the charging current to turn on the thyristor is 16 mA. What is the critical value of dv/dt?
A. 600 V/µs
B. 800 V/µs
C. 1200 V/µs
D. 1000 V/µs
SCR will be turned off when anode current is_______________?
A. < latching current but greater than holding current and gate signal is 0.
B. less than holding current.
C. < latching current but greater than holding current and gate signal is present.
D. both (A) and (B).
After proper turn on of thyristor____________?
A. gate signal is always present
B. gate signal must be removed
C. gate signal should present but can be removed
D. none of the above.
Gate circuit or triggering circuit of a thyristor is
A. lower power circuit.
B. high power circuit.
C. magnetic circuit.
D. may be low power or high power circuit
Thyristor is nothing but a____________?
A. Controlled transistor
B. Controlled switch
C. Amplifier with higher gain
D. Amplifier with large current gain
How can we protect SCR from thermal conditions _____________?
A. Use of snubber circuit.
B. Using heat sink.
C. Using CB and fuse.
D. Using equalizing circuit
Which of the following is used in heat sink_____________?
A. Iron
B. Aluminium
C. Carbon
D Silver
A thyristor can termed as__________?
A. AC switch
B. DC switch
C. Both a and B
D. Square wave switch
Materials used in heat sink should have_____________?
A. high thermal conductivity
B. large surface area
C. high melting point
D. All of these
Compared to transistor, _________ have lower on state conduction losses and higher power handling capability?
A. TRIACs
B. Semi conductor diodes
C. MOSFETs
D. Thyristor
What is used to protect a thyristor from high di / dt conditions__________?
A. Fuse.
B. Snubber circuit
C. Inductor
D. Voltage clamping device
COOLMOS device can be used in application up to power range of___________?
A. 1 KVA
B. 2 KVA
C. 500 VA
D. 100 KVA
Which of the following is used in SCR to protect from high dV / dt__________________?
A. Snubber circuit
B. Fuse
C. Equalizing circuit
D. Circuit breaker
IGBT combines the advantages of_____________?
 
A. BJTs and SITs
B. BJTs and MOSFETs
C. SITs and MOSFETs
D. None of these
What happen due to high di / dt____________?
A. Breakdown of junction
B. Local hot spot
C. Insulation failure
D. None of these
Thermal voltage VT can be given by____________?
A. Kq/T
B. KT/q
C. qT/K
D. (K2/q)(T + 1/T – 1)
What may happen high dV / dt____________?
A. Unwanted turn ON
B. Breakdown of J2 junction
C. Both A and B
D. Anyone of these
Why resistor is used in Snubber circuit_________________ ?
A. To minimize the loss
B. To minimize the charging current
C. To minimize the discharging current
D. All of these
Snubber circuit is used with SCR_________________?
A. in series
B. in parallel
C. either series or parallel
D. anti parallel
Which one is most suitable power device for high frequency (>100 KHz) switching application?
A. BJT
B. Power MOSFET
C. Schottky diode
D. Microwave transistor
Delay time is defined by the interval when_______________?
A. gate current increases from 90 % to 100 % of its final value
B. anode current reaches 10 % from forward leakage current
C. anode voltage drops from 100 % to 90 % of its actual value
D. all of these
A modern power semiconductor device that combines the characteristic of BJT and MOSFET is_____________?
A. IGBT
B. FCT
C. MCT
D. GTO
Rise time is defined by the interval when____________?
A. gate current rises from 90 % to 100 % of it final value
B. anode voltage drops from 90 % to 10 % of its initial value
C. anode current rises 10 % to 90 % of its final value
D. both B and C
A power MOSFET has three terminals called___________?
A. Collector, emitter and gate
B. Drain, source and gate
C. Drain, source and base
D. Collector, emitter and base
The turn-on time of an SCR with inductive load is 20 µs. The puls train frequency is 2.5 KHz with a mark/space ratio of 1/10, then SCR will___________?
A. Turn on
B. Not turn on
C. Turn on if inductance is removed
D. Turn on if pulse frequency us increased to two times
Spread time is defined as the interval during which_____________?
A. anode voltage drops from 10 % of its initial value to zero
B. anode current rises from 90 % to its final value
C. both (A) and (B)
D. anode current rises from 10 % to 90 % of its final value
Maximum power loss occurs during_________________?
A. delay time
B. rise time
C. spread time
D. all
The reverse recovery time of diode is trr = 3 μs and the rate off all of the diode current is di/dt = 30 A/μs. The storage charge current QRR is___________?
A. 130 μs
B. 135 μs
C. 140 μs
D. 145 μs
The typical time of rising time lies between______________?
A. 10 – 20 µs
B. 40 – 60 µs
C. 1 – 4 µs
D. 90 – 100 µs
SITH is also known as___________?
A. Filled controlled diode
B. Filled controlled rectifier
C. Silicon controlled rectifier
D. None of these
A GTO can be turned on by applying___________?
A. Positive gate signal
B. Positive drain signal
C. Positive source signal
D. None of these
During which time maximum conduction spreading take place in the thyristor during turn ON?
A. Delay time
B. Spread time
C. Rise time
D. Same for every case
Which of the following is true about SIT?
A. SIT is a high power, high frequency device
B. SIT is a high power, low frequency device
C. SIT is a high power, high voltage device
D. SIT is a low power, high frequency device
During reverse recovery time__________________?
A. charge carrier of junction J2 recombined
B. charge carrier of junction J1 is swept out
C. charge carrier of junction J3 is swept out
D. both B and C
During gate recovery time_____________?
A. charge carriers of J2 junction recombined
B. charge carriers of J2 junction is swept out
C. charge carrier of J1 junction removed
D. charge carriers of J3 junction is removed
Power transistor are type of___________?
A. B.JTs
B. MOSFETs
C. IGBTs
D. All of above
Typical range of thyristor turn OFF time is______________?
A. 3 – 10 µs
B. 3 – 50 µs
C. 3 – 100 µs
D. 3 – 500 µs
Which of following is normally ON device?
A. SIT
B. BJT
C. TRIAC
D. IGBT
Which statement is true ?
A. Reverse recovery time ( trr ) > gate recovery time (tgr)
B. Device turn OFF time ( tq ) > reverse recover time (trr)
C. Circuit turn OFF time > device turn OFF time ( tq )
D. All of these
Which of following is not a power transistor?
A. IGBTs
B. COOLMOS
C. TRIAC
D. SITS
ON state voltage drop across SCR lie between the range_____________?
A. 0 – 0.5 V.
B. 0.5 – 1 V.
C. 1 – 1.5 V.
D. 1.5 – 2 V.
Which following is a two terminal three layer device?
A. BJT
B. Power dioed
C. MOSFET
D. None of above
SCRs are used in series to meet_______________?
A. high current demand
B. low voltage demand
C. low current demand
D. high voltage demand
Dynamic equalising circuit is useful____________?
A. To limit di / dt of SCR
B. To limit dV / dt of SCR
C. For voltage equalisation
D. Both B and C
To meet high current demand we use SCRs in______________?
A. series connection.
B. parallel connection.
C. anti parallel connection.
D. both B and C.
Anode current in an SCR consists of____________?
A. holes only
B. electrons only
C. either electron or holes
D. Both electron and holes
By which one of the following we can measure the reliability of a string_____________?
A. String efficient
B. Reliability factor
C. Factor of safety
D. Derating factor
For series connected SCR’s dynamic equalising circuit consists of___________?
A. R and C in series but with diode across C
B. R and C in series but with diode across R
C. Series R and diode with C across R
D. Series R and diode with C across R
A thyristor string is made of a no. of SCR connected in series and parallel. The string have volume and current of 11 KV and 4 KA. The voltage and current rating of available SCRs are 1800 V and 1000 A. For a string efficiency of 90 % let the number of SCRs in series and parallel are a and b respectively. Then the value of a and b will be_____________?
A. 5, 7
B. 4, 6
C. 7, 5
D. 6, 4
Maximum di / dt in a SCR is________?
A. Directly proportional to Vm of supply voltage
B. Inversely proportional to Vm of supply voltage
C. Inversely proportional to L in the circuit
D. Both A and C
60 thyrsistors are connected in series and parallel to form a 10 KV and 5.5 KA switch. Each thyristor is rated for 1.2 KV, 1 KA. The no. of parallel path are 6. The efficiency of the switch is______________________?
A. 76.3 %
B. 91.6 %
C. 83.3 %
D. 90.9 %
A string of n parallel SCRs is operated at 72 KA, the rating of each SCR is 1 KA. If derating factor of the string is 0.1. value of n will be___________?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90
Dynamic equalizing circuit is used for________________?
A. equal division of voltage across each thyristor
B. equal division of current through each thyristor in parallel
C. equal division of voltage across each thyristor in parallel
D. equal division of current through each thyristor in series
Unipolar modulation is generally used in____________?
A. AC – AC converters
B. AC – DC converters
C. DC – AC converters
D. DC – DC converters
4 thyristors rated 200 V in series. The operating voltage of the string is 600 V. Derating factor of the string is_____________________?
A. 0.75
B. 0.7
C. 0.2
D. 0.25
The power demand can be estimated approximately by___________?
A. Load survey method
B. Mathematical method
C. Statistical method
D. Economic parameters
What is the advantage of HRC fuses over Rewirable fuses?
A. High speed operation
B. High rupturing capacity
C. No ageing effect
D. All of the above
A rectifier with an external low pass filter is an example of______________?
A. Indirect switch matrix circuits
B. Direct switch matrix circuits
C. Embedded converters
D. All of these
If a shunt motor is started with its field winding open then?
A. It will rotate at the same speed as that with its field winding closed
B. It will rotate at less speed as that with its field winding closed
C. It will rotate at dangerously high speed
D. None of these
In ac – dc conversion, when the switch is closed then the sum of voltages around the loop is____________?
A. Zero
B. Non zero
C. Equal to the sum of voltage when switch is open
D. Twice of the voltage when switch is open
An ideal switch is___________?
A. Lossless
B. Carry current in any direction when it is on
C. Does not carry any current in any direction when it is off
D. All of these
Electrical power output in a d.c. generator is equal to____________?
A. Electrical power developed in armature – copper losses
B. Mechanical power input – iron and friction losses
C. Electrical power developed in armature – iron and copper losses
D. Mechanical power input – iron and friction losses – copper losses
IGBT stands for___________?
A. Insulated gate bipolar transistor
B. Insulated gate bidirectional transistor
C. Inductive gate bipolar transistor
D. Inductive gate bidirectional transistor
The switching function of semiconductor devices can be characterized with___________?
A. Duty ratio only
B. Frequency only
C. Duty ratio and frequency
D. Duty ratio, frequency and time delay
Number of PN junction in an SCR is____________?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
AC power in a load can be controlled by using____________?
A. Two SCR’s in parallel opposition
B. Two SCR’s in series
C. Three SCR’s in series
D. Four SCR’s in series
In a silicon controlled rectifier, the load is connected___________?
A. Across anode
B. In series with anode
C. Across cathode
D. In series with cathode
An SCR is made up of silicon because?
A. silicon has large leakage current than germanium
B. silicon has small leakage current than germanium
C. silicon has small leakage voltage than germanium
D. silicon has large leakage voltage than germanium
Anode of an operational SCR is _______________?
A. Always positive w.r.t cathode
B. Always negative w.r.t anode
C. Always positive w.r.t anode
D. Always negative w.r.t cathode
If the gate voltage of an SCR is removed, then the_______________?
A. anode current decreases
B. anode current does not decrease at all
C. anode current increases
D. cathode current increases
The output power of the cascaded amplifier / attenuator system can be determined using___________?
A. Actual gain of amplifier
B. Actual gain of amplifier and attenuator
C. Gain in dB of amplifier and attenuator
D. Actual gain of attenuator
A single phase ac – dc converter is also known as____________?
A. rectifier
B. inverter
C. chopper
D. regulator
In a single phase full wave rectifier, during blocking state the pea inverse voltage of diode is______________?
A. V m
B. 2 V m
C. V m / 2
D. 4 V m
LISN is a device used to measure conducted emissions. LISN stands for_____________?
A. Line integrated stabilization network
B. Line impedance stabilization network
C. Line integrated stored network
D. Laser integrated stabilization networking
In a full wave rectifier, the rectification ratio is approximately equal to____________?
A. 61%
B. 71%
C. 81%
D. 91%
For power output higher than 15 kW, the suitable rectifier is________________?
A. Single phase
B. 3 phase
C. Polyphase
D. Only (b) and (c)
In current commutated DC-DC choppers, the voltage spike appears across the load when_____________?
A. Voltage across the commutating inductances collapses
B. The capacitance-voltage adds to the supply voltage
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these

 

AIOU Face To Face Component 3600 10 Observation Reports

AIOU Teaching Practice II Lesson Plans 6555 Biology
AIOU Teaching Practice II Lesson Plans 6555 Biology

AIOU Face To Face Component 3600 10 Observation Reports

Observation Report 1

Name of Trainee Teacher: Zawar Ali………

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report was written while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

  1. Review the portfolio requirements for Special Education (SE)
  2. Begin reading text for SE
  3. Draft welcome letter and have teacher approve.
  4. Transition thinking from an elementary classroom teacher to thinking like a special education teacher.
  • Review student teacher’s introduction.
  • Review the student-teacher handbook.
  • Provide resources and an overview of the curriculum for the next 10 weeks.
  • Provide access of school’s teacher handbook to student teacher
  • Review the student-teacher handbook and student-teacher notebook assignments.
  • Review student-teacher folder, application, and placement information.
  • Set up meetings between student-teacher and classroom teacher(s).

Part II: Reflection

I picked up so many teaching methods while observing Mr. …………… I loved how He had little note cards with each student’s name and would flip from card to card after each question, giving every student a chance to participate and ensuring participation. He also had a different student every morning to lead the morning exercise. He later explained that this was to wake the students up and get their blood going in participation of special learning. I thought this was a unique and clever way to keep the students active and ready for enthusiasm to teach. I loved the environment of the school. As I walked down, whether coming or leaving, a number of staff always smiled or said good morning, and meant it. The students had smiles on their faces and it was clear that they came to school every morning. The experience has truly opened my eyes and made me realize that teaching really is what I would like to do for the rest of my life. To see children, finally, have something click in their heads or smile when you tell them they answered the question correctly makes all the hard times worth it. 

Observation Report 2

Name of Trainee Teacher: ……Zawar Ali……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report wrote while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

  1. Review students’ IEPs discuss goals and objectives for each student to be monitored weekly
  2. Plan for and discuss participating in an upcoming IEP meeting,
  3. Observe and interact with the students
  4. Meet with co-teachers (determine responsibilities and plan for the placement)
  5. Become acquainted with classroom, students, routines, procedures.
  6. Show your teacher the portfolio requirements.

Contact supervisor re: questions

  1. Begin work on portfolio assignments
  2. Complete worksheet on People to Meet, Classroom Procedures
  3. Send weekly reflection/schedule and daily journaling to supervisor.
  • Model and include the student-teacher in teaching activities, routines, procedures.
  • Provide feedback to student teacher
  • Help student teachers complete assignments
  • Have the student-teacher show you the portfolio assignments
  • Plan out the ten-week student teaching experience
  • Fill out the stipend form, seal it in an envelope and give it to the supervisor.
  • Meet with the teacher(s) and student-teacher.
  • Complete initial meeting form
  • Talk through the 10-week placement.
  • Provide teachers with the Stipend form, have them complete it, seal it in the envelope and then mail it or drop it off at the respective SOE office.
  • Review weekly reports/schedules and daily journals with a student-teacher
  • Make yourself available to the teacher and student-teacher (email, phone calls).

Part II: Reflection

I believe that overall, this was a great experience. I honestly could not have been happier with how well my observations of Mr. ……….’s special classroom went. I would strongly recommend him to interested students looking for somewhere to learn the ways of teaching. Not only He was strong academically, but also you could tell He had an interest passion for making sure each and every one of his students learned at least something in class every day. Not only was He strong, but patient as well.

Observation Report 3

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report was written while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

  1. Know the names of all students.
  2. Continue assisting with classroom duties.
  3. Work with the special education and classroom teachers on the next week’s lesson plans
  4. Monitor student progress (goals/objectives)
  • Add more special education teacher responsibilities (aim at full involvement by weeks 3-5).
  • Prepare for and/or participate in IEP meetings

Continue working on portfolio assignments

  • Assessment Summary
  • Lesson Plans/Instruction
  • Send weekly reflection/schedule and daily journaling to supervisor (Sunday 6 PM)
  • Model and prepare student teachers to take over responsibilities by weeks 3-5
  • Provide feedback to student teacher
  • Help student teachers complete assignments
  • Have the student-teacher show you the portfolio assignments
  • Plan out the ten-week student teaching experience

Fill out the stipend form, seal it in an envelope and give it to the supervisor.

  • Review weekly reports/schedules and daily journals.
  • Make yourself available to the teacher and student-teacher (email, phone calls).
  • Make first student-teacher observation visit (Week 3)

Part II: Reflection

I picked up so many teaching methods while observing and I loved how He had little note cards with each student’s name and would flip from card to card after each question, giving every student a chance to participate and ensuring participation. He also had a different student every morning to lead the morning exercise. He later explained that this was to wake the students up and get their blood going in participation in special learning. I thought this was a unique and clever way to keep the students active and ready for enthusiasm to teach. I loved the environment of the school.

Observation Report 4

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report was written while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

 Take over full control of classroom responsibilities with the assistance of teacher(s).

 Work with the special education and classroom teachers on the next week’s lesson plans

 Monitor student progress (goals/objectives)

 Prepare for and/or participate (lead) IEP meetings

 Contact supervisor with any questions or concerns.

Continue working on portfolio assignments

 Develop unit & implement

 Target social behavior & interventions

 Measure behaviors

 Continue to phase in responsibilities

 Assume total instruction (Week 5)

Send weekly reflection/schedule and daily journaling to supervisor (Sunday 6 PM). Complete midterm evaluation on self and share with teacher and supervisor (Week 5)

–  Monitor student teachers’ progress and provide feedback.

–  Help student teachers complete assignments

– Complete Midterm Evaluation and conference with student-teacher (Week 5)

– Make second student teacher observation visit (Week 5)

– Conference with the teacher and student-teacher over your observation (student signs and dates form).

 Review weekly reports/schedules and daily journals.

– Make yourself available to the teacher and student-teacher (email, phone calls).

–  Complete Midterm Evaluation and conference with student-teacher (Week 5)

Part II: Reflection

As I walked down, whether coming or leaving, a number of staff always smiled or said good morning, and meant it. The students had smiles on their faces and it was clear that they came to school every morning. The experience has truly opened my eyes and made me realize that teaching really is what I would like to do for the rest of my life. To see children, finally, have something click in their heads or smile when you tell them they answered the question correctly makes all the hard times worth it. Although I’m sure, it will be a lot of work, I have no doubt in my mind that molding young minds is the right path for me.

Observation Report 5

Name of Trainee Teacher: ……… Zawar Ali.

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report was written while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

Work toward the improvement of goals set by the Midterm Evaluation

Continue with full control of classroom responsibilities with the assistance of teacher(s)

Work with the special education and classroom teachers on the next week’s lesson plans

Monitor student progress (goals/objectives)

Prepare for and/or participate (lead) IEP meetings

Contact supervisor with any questions or concerns.

–  Continue working on portfolio assignments

Continue instruction

Participate in an IEP

Participate in a Parent-Teacher Conference

Write behavior change report

–  Send weekly reflection/schedule and daily journaling to supervisor (Sunday 6 PM)

–  Monitor student teachers’ progress and provide feedback.

–  Help student teachers complete assignments

– Complete Lesson Evaluation and conference with student-teacher (Week 7-9)

– Make third and fourth student teacher observation visits (Week 7 & 9)

– Conference with the teacher and student-teacher over your observation (student signs and dates form).

Review weekly reports/schedules and daily journals.

– Make yourself available to the teacher and student-teacher (email, phone calls).

Part II: Reflection

I believe that most of the lessons, learning activities, and assessments can be effectively differentiated in the classroom if the school district provides workshops and designates specific times for the teachers to develop the lessons, activities, and assessments. It is not an easy task to differentiate instruction and create new lessons, assessments, and activities while you have students with different disabilities and paperwork that needs to be submitted daily. For instance, I have classes of forty students and it is very difficult for me to reach all students and help them meet their needs. I have experienced that it takes many days to create an effective curriculum that differentiates instruction for all students with special needs.
I have experienced that when teachers provide accommodations and modify assessments for students with disabilities, students feel more comfortable because they are learning in an environment where they feel welcomed and valued.

Observation Report 6

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report was written while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

– Begin phasing out of teaching responsibilities

– Continue to assist special education teacher

– Visit and observe other special education classrooms/settings in the school/district

–  Complete portfolio assignments

 Complete professional development plan

–  Send weekly reflection/schedule and daily journaling to supervisor (Sunday 6 PM)

– Complete final evaluation on student-teacher. Make recommendations for certification.

– Conference with student-teacher on the final evaluation.

– Provide the student with a letter of recommendation.

– Complete Final Evaluation on student-teacher. Make recommendations for certification. Conference with student-teacher on the final evaluation.

– Provide the student with a letter of recommendation.

– Complete the Professional Folder checklist and include all required information, including the final expense report.  Mail or drop off at respective SOE office immediately.

Part II: Reflection

It is very essential for all teachers to modify and accommodate instruction only for students with the most significant disabilities. That is exactly true because I believe that most students with significant disabilities in my classroom will only be successful if I accommodate and modify assignments and assessments that meet their needs. For instance, in my classroom, some accommodations that I provide are extra time and one-to-one instruction. I have an experience that some students with special needs maximize their learning if the teacher works with them using one-to-one instruction. I have also experienced that if the teacher provides extra time for students with special needs, they tend to analyze the problems more carefully.

Observation Report 7

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report wrote while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

  • Review student teacher’s introduction.
  • Review the student-teacher handbook.
  • Provide resources and an overview of the curriculum for the next 10 weeks.
  • Provide access of school’s teacher handbook to student teacher
  • Review the student-teacher handbook and student-teacher notebook assignments.
  • Review student-teacher folder, application, and placement information.
  • Set up meetings between student-teacher and classroom teacher(s).
  • Send weekly reflection/schedule and daily journaling to supervisor (Sunday 6 PM)
  • Model and prepare student teachers to take over responsibilities by weeks 3-5
  • Provide feedback to student teacher
  • Help student teachers complete assignments
  • Have the student-teacher show you the portfolio assignments

Part II: Reflection

In order to establish a learning environment and maximize the learning of all students in my classroom, I implement specific steps for effective instruction and make accommodations to meet the need of my students with special needs. The seven steps for differentiating instruction for students with special needs are identifying classroom demands, weaknesses and areas of student success, potential problems, and ways to differentiate instruction and evaluate student progress. Reading about this strategy, gave me more ideas on how to help my students meet their needs and make sure they are successful. I came to the conclusion that this approach seems very similar to the way I teach in my classroom. For instance, when I am about to start a lesson, I focus on identifying the classroom demands such as classroom management and instructional material to establish an effective learning environment.

Observation Report 8

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report wrote while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

There are pictures of color, shapes, Braille letters, vegetables, animals’ objects, and numbers. There are pictures of animals at desks and animals reading and writing. This is supposed to provide a fun twist on special learning for students. I also noticed there was a schedule onboard showing allocated time for each subject and calendar with current and the previous dates flipped over. Also on the board is a “Discipline tracker” as He calls it. It consisted of 3 Plates: one red, one yellow, and one green. This will be explained later. The special classroom was also divided into 3 spaces: the teacher’s desk, the student’s desk, and the reading corner. Overall, the special classroom environment was very homey. He stated the class every morning with him reading lesson Mr. ……… walked over to his chair, sat down and called the children over and told them to all sit as “Indian style”. After every child was seated with their hands in their lap, Mr. ……… began explaining what story He would read to the class the morning. As He read, He used group altering by periodically asking the students questions pertaining to the characters or the words in the story. Such as which word rhyme in this sentence? Or what is the feeling word? This made the engaged time with the students last longer since they knew they would be asked to answer. After reading the lesson, He would then tell the kids to disperse into their groups and tell them what corners to go to. ………later explained that the kids were grouped based on their scores from a test given at the beginning of the year. This way, He knew He would have to work longer with a certain group or not as long with another based on how much they previously knew. The kids then either went to the computer corner, the teacher’s aide, or to work with Mr. ……….. At each corner, the children worked on word identification, reading, phonics, and spelling. The children who needed the help more worked While Mr. ………… was teaching the individual groups, I noticed how often He would have to talk time away from his teaching to discipline the other kids. It seemed almost ridiculous how often He would have to stop to make sure nobody was talking, being disruptive, or not doing their work. I felt upset for those kids who wanted to learn but could not because ………was playing policeman. This showed me how much time really goes into non-instructional activities. If any of the disruptions ever got out of control beyond a warning, then He would use the discipline tracker. He would move a cloth spine with the student’s name from green to yellow.

Part II: Reflection

Having fifteen kids running around a room cannot be easy for anyone. Yet He handled it with grace and poise. I picked up so many teaching methods while observing Mr. ……….. I loved how He had little note cards with each student’s name and would flip from card to card after each question, giving every student a chance to participate and ensuring participation. He also had a different student every morning to lead the morning exercise. He later explained that this was to wake the students up and get their blood going in participation f special learning. I thought this was a unique and clever way to keep the students active and ready for enthusiasm to teach. I loved the environment of the school. As I walked down, whether coming or leaving, a number of staff always smiled or said good morning, and meant it. The students had smiles on their faces and it was clear that they came to school every morning. The experience has truly opened my eyes and made me realize that teaching really is what I would like to do for the rest of my life.

Observation Report 9

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ……………………..

Name of Class: ………………….

Name of Class Teacher: ………………….

Below is a report wrote while observing a special classroom at ……………… School, district …………

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

For my teacher observation, I reached the school sharp at 08:30 AM. Due to COVID-19, the school assembly was postponed. All students, teachers, and other staff wear masks. Temperature also checks on the school gate. Due to my familiarity with school staff, I feel very comfortable interacting with them. Due to COVID-19, I maintain social distance with staff and students. After walking into the special classroom, you immediately feel welcome. On the floor is a doormat full of color. The rug says welcome and makes you feel just that. On the wall, there are a number of pictures that encourage special learning? There are pictures of color, shapes, Braille letters, vegetables, animals’ objects, and numbers. There are pictures of animals at desks and animals reading and writing. This is supposed to provide a fun twist on special learning for students. I also noticed there was a schedule onboard showing allocated time for each subject and calendar with current and previous dates flipped over. Also on the board is a “Discipline tracker” as He calls it. It consisted of 3 Plates: one red, one yellow, and one green. This will be explained later. The special classroom was also divided into 3 spaces: the teacher’s desk, the student’s desk, and the reading corner. Overall, the special classroom environment was very homey. He stated the class every morning with him reading lesson Mr. ……… walked over to his chair, sat down and called the children over and told them to all sit as “Indian style”. After every child was seated with their hands in their lap, Mr. ……… began explaining what story He would read to the class the morning. As He read, He used group altering by periodically asking the students questions pertaining to the characters or the words in the story. Such as which word rhyme in this sentence? Or what is the feeling word? This made the engaged time with the students last longer since they knew they would be asked to answer. After reading the lesson, He would then tell the kids to disperse into their groups and tell them what corners to go to. ………later explained that the kids were grouped based on their scores from a test given at the beginning of the year. This way, He knew He would have to work longer with a certain group or not as long with another based on how much they previously knew. The kids then either went to the computer corner, the teacher’s aide, or to work with Mr. ……….. At each corner, the children worked on word identification, reading, phonics, and spelling. The children who needed the help more worked While Mr. ………… was teaching the individual groups, I noticed how often He would have to talk time away from his teaching to discipline the other kids. It seemed almost ridiculous how often He would have to stop to make sure nobody was talking, being disruptive, or not doing their work. I felt upset for those kids who wanted to learn but could not because ………was playing policeman. This showed me how much time really goes into non-instructional activities. If any of the disruptions ever got out of control beyond a warning, then He would use the discipline tracker. He would move a cloth spine with the student’s name from green to yellow. This meant that the student did not get a sticker at the end of the day although it seems petty to an adult that sticker meant the world to the child and the student’s behavior automatically improved. I had to pray my mentor on this eye thought it was an annotative way of teaching the students good behavior through a reward system. The school environment was very clean and well maintained. The bathrooms were also spotless. The staff and students alike seem to really enjoy the school and the environment around them. There is no better place to learn than somewhere you are comfortable.

Part II: Reflection

I believe that overall, this was a great experience. I honestly could not have been happier with how well my observations of Mr. ……… special classroom went. I would strongly recommend his to an interested students looking for somewhere to learn the ways of teaching. Not only He was strong academically, but also you could tell He had an interest passion for making sure each and every one of his students learned at least something in class every day. Not only was He strong, but patient as well. Having fifteen kids running around a room cannot be easy for anyone. Yet He handled it with grace and poise. I picked up so many teaching methods while observing Mr. ……….. I loved how He had little note
cards with each student’s name and would flip from card to card after each question, giving every student a chance to participate and ensuring participation. He also had a different student every morning to lead the morning exercise. He later explained that this was to wake the students up and get their blood going in participation f special learning. I thought this was a unique and clever way to keep the students active and ready for enthusiasm to teach. I loved the environment of the school. As I walked down, whether coming or leaving, a number of staff always smiled or said good morning, and meant it. The students had smiles on their faces and it was clear that they came to school every morning. The experience has truly opened my eyes and made me realize that teaching really is what I would like to do for the rest of my life. To see children, finally have something click in their heads or smile when you tell them they answered the question correctly makes all the hard times
worth it. Although I’m sure, it will be a lot of work, I have no doubt in my mind that molding young minds is the right path for me.

 Observation Report 10

Name of Trainee Teacher: …… Zawar Ali ……

Name of School: ………………………

Name of Class:  ……………………………..

Name of Class Teacher: …………………..

Below is a report wrote while observing a special classroom at ………school, district……..

Teacher Observation Report

Part I: Observation

For my teacher observation, I reached the school sharp at 08:30 AM. Due to COVID-19, the school assembly was postponed. All students, teachers, and other staff wear masks. Temperature also checks on the school gate. Due to my familiarity with school staff, I feel very comfortable interacting with them. Due to COVID-19, I maintain social distance with staff and students. After walking into the special classroom, you immediately feel welcome. On the floor is a doormat full of color. The rug says welcome and makes you feel just that. On the wall, there are a number of pictures that encourage special learning. There are pictures of color, shapes, Braille letters, vegetables, animals’ objects, and numbers. There are pictures of animals at desks and animals reading and writing. This is supposed to provide a fun twist on special learning for students. I also noticed there was a schedule onboard showing allocated time for each subject and calendar with current and the previous dates flipped over. Also on
the board is a “Discipline tracker” as He calls it. It consisted of 3 Plates: one red, one yellow, and one green. This will be explained later. The special classroom was also divided into 3 spaces: the teacher’s desk, the student’s desk, and the reading corner. Overall, the special classroom environment was very homey. He started the class every morning with his reading lesson. ………walked over to his chair, sat down and called the children over, and told them to all sit as “Indian style”. After every child was seated with their hands in their lap, ……… began explaining what would He is going to teach the class. As He read, He used group altering by periodically asking the students questions pertaining to the characters or the words in the story. He then draws the picture of clocks to tell the students. This made the engaged time with the students last longer since they knew they would be asked to answer. After reading the lesson, He would then tell the students to disperse into their groups and tell them to draw a clock without writing the time then He randomly give these chits to the students and ask the students to write the time. The school environment was very clean and well maintained. The bathrooms were also spotless. The staff and students alike seem to really enjoy the school and the environment around them. There is no better place to learn than somewhere you are comfortable.

Part II: Reflection

I believe that overall, this was a great experience. I honestly could not have been happier with how well my observations of Mr. ……….’s special classroom went. I would strongly recommend him to interested students looking for somewhere to learn the ways of teaching. Not only He was strong academically, but also you could tell He had an interest passion for making sure each and every one of his students learned at least something in class every day. Not only was He strong, but patient as well. Having fifteen kids running around a room cannot be easy for anyone. Yet He handled it with grace and poise. I picked up so many teaching methods while observing Mr. …………… I loved how He had little note cards with each student’s name and would flip from card to card after each question, giving every student a chance to participate and ensuring participation. He also had a different student every morning to lead the morning exercise. He later explained that this was to wake the students up and get their blood going in participation in special learning. I thought this was a unique and clever way to keep the students active and ready for enthusiasm to teach. I loved the environment of the school. As I walked down, whether coming or leaving, a number of staff always smiled or said good morning, and meant it. The students had smiles on their faces and it was clear that they came to school every morning. The experience has truly opened my eyes and made me realize that teaching really is what I would like to do for the rest of my life. To see children, finally have something click in their heads or smile when you tell them they answered the question correctly makes all the hard times worth it. Although I’m sure, it will be a lot of work, I have no doubt in my mind that molding young minds is the right path for me.

AIOU Solved Assignments Teaching Strategies at Elementary Level 623

Compare Secondary And Higher Education of India and Pakistan
Compare Secondary And Higher Education of India and Pakistan

AIOU Solved Assignments Teaching Strategies at Elementary Level 623

AIOU Solved Assignments Teaching Strategies at Elementary Level 623 AIOU solved assignments of spring and autumn are available of Matric, FA, BA, BS (Old), Associate Degree, BSc, B.Ed, MA, MSc, and M.Ed levels. Any student can download AIOU solved assignment from here. Click on the concerned level for the download assignment.

Note:
If you want to buy the Latest solved assignments in PDF & Word files you can contact us through WhatsApp numbers given below:
0314-4646739
0332-4646739
0336-4646739

Download All Solved Assignments: Click Here

Academic Programmes

The University has introduced a wide range of undergraduate, graduate, Master’s, M.Phil. and Doctoral programs. The University also offers basic functional courses for illiterates and semi-literates. These programs have given distinction to the University in relation to other educational institutions of Pakistan as it caters to the needs of all age groups and levels of education. A summary of the Existing Programs are as follows:

Programmes
Ph.D. Programmes
M. Phil Programmes
Master’s Programmes
B.Ed Programme
Bachelor Programmes
Higher Secondary School Certificate (Intermediate)
Secondary School Certificate (Matric)
Post Graduate Diploma (PGD)
STEP/Functional Non Credit/Certificate Courses

 

Aiou Solved Assignments As well as for getting Free Download

As we know Allama Iqbal Open Univesity Pakistan offers many different types of courses. Allama Iqbal Open University aiou tutor is a federal Govt. uni and providing quality education to all Pakistani students. Moreover, Allama Iqbal Open University provides distance learning education. Aiou Edu is based on a semester system as known as Spring and Autumn. The Spring semester starts from July to the end of the year means December. Moreover, the Autumn semester starts from December to July.

How To Download Aiou Solved Assignment Autumn & Spring?

The idea to make and Develop a separate page for the AIOU Solved assignment was taken from aiou old papers. We make this section to be understandable by a normal user. This Section will automatically be updated as the aiou semester change from autumn to spring. The assignment will automatically be added for the spring semester when aiou ask for spring-solved assignments or autumn-solved assignments. Hope you all will enjoy this new section for the assignment. If you are facing any problems, then feel free to comment below.

Download Assignment 1

Download Assignment 2

#AIOU #AIOUSolvedAssignments #AIOUSolvedThesis #AIOU40LessonPlans #AIOUFinalLessonPlans #AIOUTeachingPracticeI&II #AIOUSolvedGuessPapers #AIOUSolvedPracticumReport #AIOUGuessPapers #AIOUPastPapers #AIOUOldPapers #AIOUNewsUpdates #AllamaIqbalOpenUniversity #AIOUExam #AIOUAssignmentsSchedue #AIOUAdmission #AIOUAdmissionConfirmation #AIOUAdmissionObjections #AIOUResults #AIOUDateSheet #AIOURollNumberSlip #Education #Workshops #News #Jobs #Updates #UrduBook #Skilling.pk #Diya.pk #Research #Scholarships #AIOUAaghiPortal

 

AIOU Solved Assignments Genesis of Pakistan Movement 538

Compare Secondary And Higher Education of India and Pakistan
Compare Secondary And Higher Education of India and Pakistan

AIOU Solved Assignments Genesis of Pakistan Movement 538

AIOU Solved Assignments Genesis of Pakistan Movement 538 AIOU solved assignments of spring 2022 and autumn 2021 are available of Matric, FA, BA, BS (Old), Associate Degree, BSc, B.Ed, MA, MSc, and M.Ed levels. Any student can download AIOU solved assignment from here. Click on the concerned level for the download assignment.

Note:
If you want to buy the Latest solved assignments in PDF & Word files you can contact us through WhatsApp numbers given below:
0314-4646739
0332-4646739
0336-4646739

Download All Solved Assignments: Click Here

Academic Programmes

The University has introduced a wide range of undergraduate, graduate, Master’s, M.Phil. and Doctoral programs. The University also offers basic functional courses for illiterates and semi-literates. These programs have given distinction to the University in relation to other educational institutions of Pakistan as it caters to the needs of all age groups and levels of education. A summary of the Existing Programs are as follows:

Programmes
Ph.D. Programmes
M. Phil Programmes
Master’s Programmes
B.Ed Programme
Bachelor Programmes
Higher Secondary School Certificate (Intermediate)
Secondary School Certificate (Matric)
Post Graduate Diploma (PGD)
STEP/Functional Non Credit/Certificate Courses

 

Aiou Solved Assignments As well as for getting Free Download

As we know Allama Iqbal Open Univesity Pakistan offers many different types of courses. Allama Iqbal Open University aiou tutor is a federal Govt. uni and providing quality education to all Pakistani students. Moreover, Allama Iqbal Open University provides distance learning education. Aiou Edu is based on a semester system as known as Spring and Autumn. The Spring semester starts from July to the end of the year means December. Moreover, the Autumn semester starts from December to July.

How To Download Aiou Solved Assignment Autumn & Spring?

The idea to make and Develop a separate page for the AIOU Solved assignment was taken from aiou old papers. We make this section to be understandable by a normal user. This Section will automatically be updated as the aiou semester change from autumn to spring. The assignment will automatically be added for the spring semester when aiou ask for spring-solved assignments or autumn-solved assignments. Hope you all will enjoy this new section for the assignment. If you are facing any problems, then feel free to comment below.

Download Assignment 1

Download Assignment 2

#AIOU #AIOUSolvedAssignments #AIOUSolvedThesis #AIOU40LessonPlans #AIOUFinalLessonPlans #AIOUTeachingPracticeI&II #AIOUSolvedGuessPapers #AIOUSolvedPracticumReport #AIOUGuessPapers #AIOUPastPapers #AIOUOldPapers #AIOUNewsUpdates #AllamaIqbalOpenUniversity #AIOUExam #AIOUAssignmentsSchedue #AIOUAdmission #AIOUAdmissionConfirmation #AIOUAdmissionObjections #AIOUResults #AIOUDateSheet #AIOURollNumberSlip #Education #Workshops #News #Jobs #Updates #UrduBook #Skilling.pk #Diya.pk #Research #Scholarships #AIOUAaghiPortal