Software Engineering MCQ
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| Software Engineering Mcqs: |
| Efficiency in a software product does not include ____________________? |
| A. responsiveness B. licensing C. memory utilization D. processing time |
| Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below ? |
| A. Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system B. Refusing to undertake a project C. Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management D. All of the mentioned |
| In terms of Issues related to professional responsibility____________________? |
| A. Confidentiality B. Intellectual property rights C. Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights D. Managing Client Relationships |
| Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should: |
| A. not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.” B. not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.” C. be dependent on their colleagues.” D. maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.” |
| Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ? |
| A. PUBLIC B. PROFESSION C. PRODUCT D. ENVIRONMENT |
| What are attributes of good software ? |
| A. Software maintainability B. Software functionality C. Software development D. Software maintainability & functionality |
| Which of these is true ? |
| A. Generic products and customized products are types of software products B. Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market C. Customized products are commissioned by particular customer D. All of the mentioned |
| What is a Software ____________________ ? |
| A. Software is set of programs B. Software is documentation and configuration of data C. Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data D. None of the mentioned |
| Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the term misuse refers to ___________________? |
| A. Unauthorized access to computer material B. Unauthorized modification of computer material C. Dissemination of viruses or other malware D. All of the mentioned |
| Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ? |
| A. The product should be easy to use B. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible C. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client D. It means that the product designed /created should be easily available |
| As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ? |
| A. Lack of adequate training in software engineering B. Lack of software ethics and understanding C. Management issues in the company D. All of the mentioned |
| The reason for software bugs and failures is due to _____________________? |
| A. Software companies B. Software Developers C. Both Software companies and Developers D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of these does not account for software failure ? |
| A. Increasing Demand B. Low expectation C. Increasing Supply D. Less reliable and expensive |
| Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ? |
| A. Software dependence B. Software development C. Software validation D. Software specification |
| Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole ? |
| A. Heterogeneity B. Flexibility C. Business and social change D. Security |
| Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change ? |
| A. Build & Fix Model B. Prototyping Model C. RAD Model D. Waterfall Model |
| Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ______________ LOC (Line of Code)? |
| A. 100-200 B. 200-400 C. 400-1000 D. above 1000 |
| Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC ? |
| A. Waterfall Model B. Prototyping Model C. RAD Model D. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model |
| What is the major drawback of using RAD Model ? |
| A. Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required B. Increases reusability of components C. Encourages customer/client feedback D. Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required |
| Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model ? |
| A. Quick Design B. Coding C. Prototype Refinement D. Engineer Product |
| RAD Model has__________________? |
| A. 2 phases B. 3 phase C. 5 phases D. 6 phases |
| SDLC stands for_____________________? |
| A. Software Development Life Cycle B. System Development Life cycle C. Software Design Life Cycle D. System Design Life Cycle |
| The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ? |
| A. Software processes B. Software Security C. Software reuse D. Software Validation |
| The spiral model was originally proposed by____________________? |
| A. IBM B. Barry Boehm C. Pressman D. Royce |
| What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model ? |
| A. Customer can respond to each increment B. Easier to test and debug C. It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early D. Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early |
| How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model ? |
| A. It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information B. It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral C. It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks D. It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support |
| How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model ? |
| A. Progress can be measured for Incremental Model B. Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model C. Users can see the system early in Incremental Model D. All of the mentioned |
| Choose an internal software quality from given below________________________? |
| A. scalability B. usability C. reusability D. reliability |
| The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does static perspective do ? |
| A. It shows the process activities that are enacted B. It suggests good practices to be used during the process C. It shows the phases of the model over time D. All of the mentioned |
| Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ? |
| A. Transition B. Elaboration C. Construction D. Inception |
| Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ? |
| A. Software Verification B. Software Validation C. Software design and implementation D. Software evolution |
| The longer a fault exists in software__________________? |
| A. the more tedious its removal becomes B. the more costly it is to detect and correct C. the less likely it is to be properly corrected D. All of the mentioned |
| Selection of a model is based on_____________________? |
| A. Requirements B. Development team & Users C. Project type and associated risk D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects ? |
| A. Spiral B. Waterfall C. RAD D. Iterative Enhancement Model |
| Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved? |
| A. Waterfall & Spiral B. RAD & Spiral C. RAD & Waterfall D. RAD & Prototyping |
| A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach would they prefer ? |
| A. RAD B. Iterative Enhancement C. Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement D. Spiral |
| If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select ? |
| A. Waterfall B. Spiral C. RAD D. Incremental |
| Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below_________________? |
| A. FORTRAN B. COBOL C. Unix shell D. C++ |
| 4GL is an example of ________________ processing? |
| A. White Box B. Black Box C. Functional D. Both Black Box & Functional |
| The 4GT Model is a package of _________________? |
| A. CASE Tools B. Software tools C. Software Programs D. None of the mentioned |
| Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT. i. Design strategy ii. Transformation into product iii. Implementation iv. Requirement gathering ? |
| A. 1, 4, 3, 2 B. 4, 3, 1, 2 C. 4, 1, 3, 2 D. 1, 3, 4, 2 |
| Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for managing structured data? |
| A. SQL B. PROLOG C. C D. JAVA |
| Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle? |
| A. Waterfall & RAD B. Prototyping & Spiral C. Prototyping & RAD D. Waterfall & Spiral |
| RUP stands for______________ created by a division of ______________? |
| A. Rational Unified Program, IBM B. Rational Unified Process, Infosys C. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft D. Rational Unified Process, IBM |
| The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models? |
| A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model B. Linear Model & RAD Model C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model |
| The spiral model has two dimensions namely _______________ and _______________? |
| A. diagonal, angular B. radial, perpendicular C. radial, angular D. diagonal, perpendicular |
| Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model? |
| A. Doesn’t work well for smaller projects B. High amount of risk analysis C. Strong approval and documentation control D. Additional Functionality can be added at a later date |
| If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for ? |
| A. WINWIN Spiral Model B. Spiral Model C. Concurrent Model D. Incremental Model |
| Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating _________________? |
| A. on Lisp machine B. on report generators C. from database query languages D. from GUI creators |
| What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products, applications or programs ? |
| A. Improved productivity of software engineers B. Reduction in software development time C. 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems D. None of the mentioned |
| Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development________________? |
| A. Individuals and interactions B. Working software C. Customer collaboration D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ? |
| A. Spiral Model B. Waterfall Model C. Rad Model D. 4GT Model |
| Agile Software Development is based on_________________? |
| A. Incremental Development B. Iterative Development C. Linear Development D. Both Incremental and Iterative Development |
| How is plan driven development different from agile development ? |
| A. Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process B. Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved C. Iteration occurs within activities D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process ? |
| A. Uses incremental product delivery strategy B. Only essential work products are produced C. Eliminate the use of project planning and testing D. All of the mentioned |
| Four types of change are encountered during the support phase . Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category ? |
| A. Translation B. Correction C. Adaptation D. Prevention |
| Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report ? |
| A. Communication B. Planning C. Modeling & Construction D. Deployment |
| Purpose of process is to deliver software ___________________? |
| A. in time B. with acceptable quality C. that is cost efficient D. both in time & with acceptable quality |
| Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk ? |
| A. Reusability management B. Risk management C. Measurement D. User Reviews |
| The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the_____________ phase which focuses on what, the______________ phase which focuses on how and the_____________ phase which focuses on change ? i. support ii. development iii. definition |
| A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 1, 3 C. 3, 2, 1 D. 3, 1, 2 |
| Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product ? |
| A. keypad control of a security system B. pattern recognition game playing C. digital function of dashboard display in a car D. none of the mentioned |
| Which one of the following is not a software process quality ? |
| A. Productivity B. Portability C. Timeliness D. Visibility |
| _______________ & ________________ are two kinds of software products ? |
| A. CAD, CAM B. Firmware, Embedded C. Generic, Customised D. None of the mentioned |
| Purpose of process is to deliver software________________? |
| A. in time B. with acceptable quality C. that is cost efficient D. both in time & with acceptable quality |
| Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ? |
| A. analysis, design, coding, testing B. planning, analysis, design, coding C. planning, design, coding, testing D. planning, analysis, coding, testing |
| Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ? |
| A. Yes B. No C. It may vary from Customer to Customer D. None of the mentioned |
| In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented ____________________? |
| A. True B. False |
| Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions may occur ? |
| A. True B. False |
| User requirements are expressed as _______________ in Extreme Programming? |
| A. implementation tasks B. functionalities C. scenarios D. none of the mentioned |
| Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ? |
| A. analysis, design, coding B. requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development C. speculation, collaboration, learning D. all of the mentioned |
| How many phases are there in Scrum ? |
| A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases |
| A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ? |
| A. Entry level personnel B. Middle level stakeholder C. Managers D. Users of the software |
| The user system requirements are the parts of which document ? |
| A. SDD B. SRS C. DDD D. SRD |
| QFD stands for ________________? |
| A. quality function design B. quality function development C. quality function deployment D. none of the mentioned |
| Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one? |
| A. True B. False |
| A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ? |
| A. elicitation B. design C. analysis D. documentation |
| How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions ? |
| A. last for about 2-3 hours B. last for about 2-3 days C. cover the technology used for the development D. all of the mentioned |
| FAST stands for___________________? |
| A. Functional Application Specification Technique B. Fast Application Specification Technique C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique D. None of the mentioned |
| Select the developer-specific requirement ? |
| A. Portability B. Maintainability C. Availability D. Both Portability and Maintainability |
| How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ? |
| A. It involves successive steps B. It involves just one task C. The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system D. It has a shorter development time |
| QFD works best if it has management commitment? |
| A. True B. False |
| To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ? |
| A. C – Customer B. A – Actor C. T – Transformation D. E – ER Model |
| Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ? |
| A. Ease of software installation B. Overall operational correctness and reliability C. Specific system functions D. Quality graphical display |
| Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ? |
| A. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) B. Prototyping C. Soft Systems Methodology (SSM) D. Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE) |
| Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique ? |
| A. It incorporates human element into design B. SSM is in its infant stage C. SSM is suitable for new systems D. Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM |
| Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ? |
| A. System Analyst B. Scribe C. Facilitator D. Manager |
| How many phases are there in Brainstorming ? |
| A. Two B. Three C. Four D. All of the mentioned |
| Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wide band Delphi Technique ? |
| i. Conduct a group discussion ii. Conduct another group discussion iii. Present experts with a problem iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously v. Iterate until consensus is reached vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert |
| A. i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi B. iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi C. i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v D. iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v |
| The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ? |
| A. Developer B. User C. Non-Functional D. Physical |
| Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project ? |
| A. True B. False C. Depends upon the size of project D. None of the mentioned |
| How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ? |
| A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six |
| Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ? |
| A. Use Cases B. Entity Relationship Diagram C. State Transition Diagram D. Activity Diagram |
| What are the four dimensions of Dependability ? |
| A. Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility B. Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security C. Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety D. Security, Safety, Testability, Usability |
| How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ? |
| A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five |
| Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system? |
| A. True B. False |
| “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ? |
| A. Functional B. Non-Functional C. Known Requirement D. None of the mentioned |
| Which one of the following is a functional requirement ? |
| A. Maintainability B. Portability C. Robustness D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements ? |
| A. It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform B. It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized C. The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended D. None of the mentioned |
| Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ? |
| A. Availability B. Testability C. Usability D. Flexibility |
| Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner ? |
| i. Consolidation ii. Prioritization iii. Requirements Gathering iv. Evaluation |
| A. iii, i, ii, iv B. iii, iv, ii, i C. iii, ii, iv, i D. ii, iii, iv, i |
| What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ? |
| A. Object Oriented Design (by Booch) B. Use Cases (by Jacobson) C. Fusion (by Coleman) D. Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh) |
| What is the first step of requirement elicitation ? |
| A. Identifying Stakeholder B. Listing out Requirements C. Requirements Gathering D. All of the mentioned |
| What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD) ? |
| A. Known, Unknown, Undreamed B. User, Developer C. Functional, Non-Functional D. Normal, Expected, Exciting |
| What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ? |
| A. Primary B. Secondary C. Ternary D. Both Primary and Secondary |
| What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ? |
| A. JAD B. Traceability C. FAST D. Both JAD and Traceability |
| Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ? |
| A. Verifiable B. Ambiguous C. Complete D. Traceable |
| The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if____________________? |
| A. its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure B. every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet C. every requirement stated therein is verifiable D. no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other |
| The SRS document is also known as ________________ specification ? |
| A. black-box B. white-box C. grey-box D. none of the mentioned Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? |
| A. Consistent B. Verifiable C. Non-verifiable D. Correct |
| Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? |
| A. Consistent B. Non-Verifiable C. Correct D. Ambiguous |
| Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard? |
| i. General description ii. Introduction iii. Index iv. Appendices v. Specific Requirements A. iii, i, ii,v, iv B. iii, ii, i, v, iv C. ii, i, v, iv, iii D. iii, i, ii |
| Which of the following is included in SRS ? |
| A. Cost B. Design Constraints C. Staffing D. Delivery Schedule |
| Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? |
| A. Consistent B. Non-verifiable C. Correct D. Ambiguous |
| Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ? |
| i. SRS is written by customer ii. SRS is written by a developer iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer |
| A. Only i is true B. Both ii and iii are true C. All are true D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ? |
| A. Correct B. Complete C. Consistent D. Modifiable |
| Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process_________________? |
| A. True B. False |
| Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ? |
| A. Problem of scope B. Problem of understanding C. Problem of volatility D. All of the mentioned |
| How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ? |
| A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
| Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ? |
| A. True B. False |
| What is the major drawback of CORE ? |
| A. Requirements are comprehensive B. NFRs are not given enough importance C. Role of analyst is passive D. All of the mentioned |
| How is CORE different from IBIS ? |
| A. Iterative in nature B. Redundancies are removed C. It is simple and an easier method to use D. Consistency problems are addressed in CORE |
| How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ? |
| A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five |
| According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ? |
| A. Poor change management B. Poor requirements management C. Poor quality control D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a requirement management activity ? |
| A. Investigation B. Design C. Construction and Test D. All of the mentioned |
| Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project ? |
| A. True B. False |
| What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations________________________? |
| A. Automatic Link Detection B. Documentation Support C. Graphical Representation D. Automatic Link Creation and Change |
| Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ? |
| A. RTM B. DOORS C. Rational Suite D. RDD 100 |
| Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management? |
| A. True B. False Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes___________________? |
| A. to the environment B. in technology C. in customer’s expectations D. in all of the mentioned. |
| Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ? |
| A. User and Developer B. Functional and Non-functional C. Enduring and Volatile D. All of the mentioned |
| Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here ? |
| A. Enduring B. Volatile C. Both Enduring & Volatile D. All of the mentioned |
| What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ? |
| A. Context Diagrams B. DFDs C. ER model D. UML diagrams |
| IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ? |
| A. FODA B. CORE C. IBIS D. Prototyping |
| Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ? |
| A. User B. Tester C. Scribe D. Sponsor |
| Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS) ? |
| A. Idea -> Question -> Argument B. Question -> Idea -> Argument C. Issue -> Position -> Justification D. Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification |
| ______________ and ______________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE) ? |
| A. Functional, Non-Functional B. User, Developer C. Known, Unknown D. All of the mentioned |
| __________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics ? |
| A. Realization B. Aggregation C. Generalization D. dependency |
| The UML supports event-based modeling using _______________ diagrams? |
| A. Deployment B. Collaboration C. State chart D. All of the mentioned |
| Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ? |
| A. Behavioral Model B. Context Model C. Data Model D. Structural Model |
| Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ? |
| A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Level 4 |
| The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling.How many different notations does it have ? |
| A. Three B. Four C. Six D. Nine |
| Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture ? |
| A. Structural perspective B. Behavioral perspective C. External perspective D. All of the mentioned |
| Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ? |
| A. Context Model B. Behavioral Model C. Data Model D. Object Model |
| Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ? |
| A. Activity B. Data Flow Diagram (DFD) C. State Chart D. Component Read More Details about this Mcq |
| ________________ & ________________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling? |
| A. Use Case, Sequence B. Class, Object C. Activity, State Chart D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ? |
| A. All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling B. The review leader reads the use-case deliberately C. Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards D. All of the mentioned |
| One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture? |
| A. True B. False |
| ________________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used ? |
| A. Controller B. Entity C. Boundary D. Business |
| A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well _________________? |
| A. True B. False |
| Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Software evolution does not comprises ? |
| A. Development activities B. Negotiating with client C. Maintenance activities D. Re-engineering activities |
| Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of ____________________? |
| A. Forward engineering B. Reverse Engineering C. Reengineering D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering |
| Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development ? |
| A. Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping B. Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach C. It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates D. Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a more structured approach |
| The two dimensions of spiral model are ______________________? |
| A. diagonal, angular B. radial, perpendicular C. radial, angular D. diagonal, perpendicular |
| A sociotechnical system is a system that includes___________________? |
| A. people B. software C. hardware D. all of the mentioned Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ? |
| A. Forward engineering B. Reverse Engineering C. Reengineering D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering |
| Spiral model was developed by ___________________? |
| A. Victor Bisili B. Berry Boehm C. Bev Littlewood D. Roger Pressman |
| Model preferred to create client/server applications is _______________________? |
| A. WINWIN Spiral Model B. Spiral Model C. Concurrent Model D. Incremental Model |
| Processes for evolving a software product depend on __________________? |
| A. Type of software to be maintained B. Development processes used C. Skills and experience of the people involved D. All of the mentioned |
| Reverse engineering is the last activity in a re-engineering project _____________________? |
| A. True B. False |
| The Incremental Model is combination of elements of_____________________? |
| A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model B. Linear Model & RAD Model C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model |
| The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What kind of system the example represents ? |
| A. Complex System B. Technical computer-based system C. Sociotechnical System D. Both Complex and Sociotechnical System |
| Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its operators, and its operating environment ? |
| A. security B. usability C. volume D. reliability |
| There are _______________ overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical systems? |
| A. two B. three C. four D. five |
| Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected ? |
| A. security B. usability C. volume D. reliability |
| In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely ? |
| A. only software reliability B. only hardware reliability C. hardware and software reliability D. hardware, software and operator reliability |
| Sociotechnical systems are deterministic ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Maintenance is classified into how many categories ? |
| A. two B. three C. four D. five |
| How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model ? |
| A. six B. seven C. eight D. nine |
| What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system ? |
| A. hardware and software approach B. management and users approach C. person and systems approach D. all of the mentioned |
| Software Maintenance includes ? |
| A. Error corrections B. Enhancements of capabilities C. Deletion of obsolete capabilities D. All of the mentioned |
| The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance ? |
| A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective D. Preventive |
| Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”technique.How many selective retest techniques are there? |
| A. two B. three C. four D. five _______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications ? |
| A. Efficiency B. Precision C. Generality D. Inclusiveness |
| The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as ___________________? |
| A. Software engineering B. Software re-engineering C. Reverse engineering D. Re-engineering |
| What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance ? |
| A. Actual change track B. Annual change track C. Annual change traffic D. Actual change traffic |
| What is a software patch ? |
| A. Required or Critical Fix B. Emergency Fix C. Daily or routine Fix D. None of the mentioned |
| Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing ? |
| A. It helps in development of software B. It helps in maintenance of software C. It helps in development & maintenance of software D. none of the mentioned |
| Which one of the following is not a maintenance model ? |
| A. Waterfall model B. Reuse-oriented model C. Iterative enhancement model D. Quick fix model |
| What are legacy systems ? |
| A. new systems B. old systems C. under-developed systems D. none of the mentioned |
| Which of the following manuals is a user documentation ? |
| A. SRS -Software Requirement Specification B. SDD -Software Design Document C. System Overview D. None of the mentioned |
| How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software maintenance ? |
| A. two B. three C. four D. five |
| Which of the following is a software process certification ? |
| A. JAVA Certified B. IBM Certified C. ISO-9000 D. Microsoft Certified |
| Third Party Certification for software standards is based on ___________________? |
| A. Ul 1998, Second Edition B. UT 1998, Second Edition C. Ul 1992, Second Edition D. Ul 1996, Second Edition |
| Which standard is followed in aviation industry ? |
| A. CTRADO-172B B. RTCADO-178B C. RTRADO-178B D. CTCADO-178B |
| Which of the following is a field related to certification ? |
| A. Person B. Process C. Product D. All of the mentioned |
| The process of transforming a model into source code is known as___________________? |
| A. Forward engineering B. Reverse engineering C. Re-engineering D. Reconstructing |
| Which of the following manuals is not a user documentation ? |
| A. Beginner’s Guide B. Installation guide C. Reference Guide D. SRS |
| How many levels, does the DO-178B certification targeted by RTCADO-178B has ? |
| A. two B. three C. four D. five |
| CSTE stands for ____________________? |
| A. Certified Software Technology B. Certified Software Tester C. Certified Software Trainee D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following companies provide certifications for their own products ? |
| A. CISCO B. ORACLE C. Microsoft D. All of the mentioned |
| What are the goals to gain Laboratory Accreditation ? |
| A. Increase availability of testing services through third-party laboratories B. Increase availability of testing market to encourage development of software testing industry C. Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing services D. All of the mentioned |
| CSQA stands for __________________? |
| A. Certified Software Quality Analyst B. Certified Software Quality Approved C. Certified Software Quality Acclaimed D. None of the mentioned |
| National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program approve accreditation in ___________________? |
| A. Environmental standards B. Computers and electronics C. Product testing D. All of the mentioned |
| Robustness” answers which of the following description ? |
| A. CASE tools be used to support the process activities B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors C. Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software D. Process continues in spite of unexpected problems |
| In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified ? |
| A. Process measurement B. Process analysis C. Process change D. None of the mentioned |
| “Understandability” answers which of the following description ? |
| A. The extent to which the process is explicitly defined B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors C. Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software product D. Process continues in spite of unexpected problems |
| The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called__________________? |
| A. Process metric B. Process analysis C. Process modelling D. None of the mentioned |
| What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers ? |
| A. Role B. Exception C. Activity D. Process |
| Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process ? |
| A. Informal B. Managed C. Methodical D. Supported |
| How many stages are there in process improvement ? |
| A. three B. four C. five D. six |
| Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems ? |
| A. True B. False |
| What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan ? |
| A. Deliverable B. Activity C. Condition D. Process |
| Which of the following is not a part of process change ? |
| A. Introducing new practices, methods or processes B. Introducing new team members to existing project C. Introducing or removing deliverable D. Introducing new roles or responsibilities |
| It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model ? |
| A. True B. False |
| The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x ? |
| A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 |
| Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project ? |
| A. evaluations to be performed B. amount of technical work C. audits and reviews to be performed D. documents to be produced by the SQA group |
| ____________ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics? |
| A. ISO 9001 B. ISO 9000-4 C. CMM D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification tests ? |
| A. CMM B. ISO 9001 C. ISO 9000-3 D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM ? |
| A. Design B. Repeatable C. Managed D. Optimizing |
| CO policy in CMM means___________________? |
| A. The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform B. The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform C. The policy practices in Commitment to Perform D. The planning practices in Commitment to Perform |
| The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes ? |
| A. True B. False |
| What is not included in prevention costs ? |
| A. quality planning B. formal technical reviews C. test equipment D. equipment calibration and maintenance |
| The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which of the following is not included in failure costs ? |
| A. rework B. repair C. failure mode analysis D. none of the mentioned |
| Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called_________________? |
| A. Quality Control B. Quality of conformance C. Quality Assurance D. None of the mentioned |
| Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured ? |
| A. Hardware B. Software C. Programmers D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not included in External failure costs ? |
| A. testing B. help line support C. warranty work D. complaint resolution |
| Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software ? |
| A. Project manager B. Project team C. SQA group D. All of the mentioned |
| CMM stands for_____________________? |
| A. Capability Management Module B. Conservative Maturity Model C. Capability Maturity Module D. Capability Maturity Model |
| ISO 9001 is not concerned with _______________ of quality records? |
| A. collection B. maintenance C. verification D. dis-positioning |
| The CMM emphasizes____________________? |
| A. continuous process improvement B. the need to record information C. the need to accept quality system D. none of the mentioned |
| In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in_________________________? |
| A. Software Product Engineering B. Software Quality Assurance C. Software Subcontract Management D. Software Quality Management |
| According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be____________________? |
| A. deleted B. eliminated C. identified D. eliminated and identified |
| The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software? |
| A. errors B. equivalent faults C. failure cause D. none of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA ? |
| A. inter-process inspection B. maintenance C. quality planning D. testing |
| Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications ? |
| A. Efficiency B. Precision C. Generality D. Inclusiveness |
| Regression testing is a very expensive activity? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version? |
| A. Coverage B. Minimization C. Safe D. Maximization |
| What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance ? |
| A. Regression Testing B. System Testing C. Integration Testing D. Unit Testing |
| Which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an accident ? |
| A. Risk B. Hazard probability C. Accident D. Damage |
| A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as _____________________ ? |
| A. Human error or mistake B. System fault C. System error D. System failure |
| An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers.What kind of dependability and security issue the example states ? |
| A. Hazard avoidance B. Damage limitation C. Hazard detection D. Hazard detection and removal |
| A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states ? |
| A. Hazard avoidance B. Damage limitation C. Hazard detection D. Hazard detection and removal |
| The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment ? |
| A. True B. False |
| An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system users is known as________________? |
| A. Human error or mistake B. System fault C. System error D. System failure |
| An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is known as _________________? |
| A. Risk B. Hazard probability C. Hazard severity D. Mishap |
| A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ________________ with respect to security systems? |
| A. risk B. control C. attack D. asset |
| A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as ? |
| A. Vulnerability B. Attack C. Threat D. Exposure |
| Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here ? |
| A. Loss of service B. Incorrect service delivery C. System/data corruption D. None of the mentioned |
| An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as expected by its users is called __________________? |
| A. Human error or mistake B. System fault C. System error D. System failure |
| How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification ? |
| A. three B. four C. five D. six |
| POFOD stands for___________________? |
| A. Possibility of failure of data B. Probability of failure of data C. Possibility of failure on demand D. Probability of failure on demand |
| Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system ? |
| A. Checking requirements B. Recovery requirements C. Redundancy requirements D. Ambiguous requirements |
| Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system ? |
| A. Checking requirements B. Recovery requirements C. Redundancy requirements D. Ambiguous requirements |
| To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period ? |
| A. POFOD B. ROCOF C. AVAIL D. None of the mentioned |
| At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions ? |
| A. Preliminary risk analysis B. Life-cycle risk analysis C. Operational risk analysis D. All of the mentioned |
| Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure is being described here ? |
| A. Loss of service B. Incorrect service delivery C. System/data corruption D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ? |
| A. Medical Systems B. Power Systems C. Library Management D. Telecommunications |
| Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants” ? |
| A. Diverse B. Documentable C. Auditable D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ? |
| A. Different programming languages B. Different design methods and tools C. Explicit specification of different algorithms D. All of the mentioned |
| What is the term for development process organised such that faults in the system are detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ? |
| A. Fault Avoidance B. Fault detection C. Fault tolerance D. None of the mentioned |
| What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure ? |
| A. Fault Avoidance B. Fault detection C. Fault tolerance D. None of the mentioned |
| The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be minimized ? |
| A. True B. False |
| What is a Range check ? |
| A. Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name B. Check that the input falls within a known range C. Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value D. None of the mentioned |
| Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Which of the following is not a Protection system ? |
| A. System to stop a train if it passes a red light B. System to indicate not returning of the library book C. System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too high D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ? |
| A. Limit the visibility of information in a program B. Check array bounds C. Check all inputs for validity D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ? |
| A. Platform-level protection B. Application-level protection C. Record-level protection D. All of the mentioned |
| What are security controls ? |
| A. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful B. Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks C. Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems D. All of the mentioned |
| Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to ______________ in dependability engineering? |
| A. Fault avoidance B. Fault tolerance C. Fault detection D. Fault Recovery |
| Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist malicious attacks ? |
| A. True B. False |
| What is Life cycle risk assessment ? |
| A. Risk assessment before the system has been deployed B. Risk assessment while the system is being developed C. All of the mentioned D. None of the mentioned |
| A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as ________________________? |
| A. Asset B. Control C. Vulnerability D. None of the mentioned |
| Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as___________________? |
| A. Attack B. Threat C. Vulnerability D. Control |
| An impersonation of an authorised user is an example of a security threat ? |
| A. True B. False |
| Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Pointer Arithmetic” ? |
| A. Storage management faults B. Data Faults C. Input/Output Faults D. Interface faults |
| Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical systems? |
| A. True B. False |
| Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: “Unreachable code”? |
| A. Control Faults B. Data Faults C. Input/Output Faults D. Interface faults |
| Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ? |
| A. Characteristic error checking B. User-defined error checking C. Assertion checking D. All of the mentioned |
| Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-usage of the results of functions”? |
| A. Storage management faults B. Data Faults C. Input/Output Faults D. Interface faults |
| Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Variables declared but never used”? |
| A. Control Faults B. Data Faults C. Input/Output Faults D. Interface faults |
| Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods ___________________? |
| A. Concurrent systems can be analysed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock B. Producing a mathematical specification requires a detailed analysis of the requirements C. They require the use of specialised notations that cannot be understood by domain experts D. All of the mentioned |
| The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which security concept ? |
| A. Asset B. Threat C. Vulnerability D. Control |
| Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking ? |
| A. Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems B. Model checking is computationally very inexpensive C. The model checker explores all possible paths through the model D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ? |
| A. Formal verification B. Model checking C. Automated program analysis D. All of the mentioned |
| Static Analysis involves executing a program ? |
| A. True B. False |
| In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ? |
| A. Architecture B. Data C. Interface D. All of the mentioned |
| In the Analysis phase, the development of the ______________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project ? |
| A. documentation B. flowchart C. program specification D. design |
| Who designs and implement database structures ? |
| A. Programmers B. Project managers C. Technical writers D. Database administrators |
| Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ? |
| A. Analysis B. Design C. Problem/Opportunity Identification D. Development and Documentation |
| A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as ___________________? |
| A. Sequential structure B. A List C. A plan D. An Algorithm |
| Actual programming of software code is done during the __________________ step in the SDLC? |
| A. Maintenance and Evaluation B. Design C. Analysis D. Development and Documentation |
| Which tool is use for structured designing ? |
| A. Program flowchart B. Structure chart C. Data-flow diagram D. Module |
| _______________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task ? |
| A. Project design B. Installation C. Systems analysis D. Programming |
| Debugging is_________________? |
| A. creating program code B. finding and correcting errors in the program code C. identifying the task to be computerized D. creating the algorithm |
| The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is___________________? |
| A. Efficiency B. Accuracy C. Quality D. Complexity |
| Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity ? |
| A. Modules are robust B. Module can use other modules C. Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library D. Modules are mostly dependent |
| Which of the following is the best type of module coupling ? |
| A. Control Coupling B. Stamp Coupling C. Data Coupling D. Content Coupling |
| Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________________________? |
| A. Functions B. Modules C. Classes D. Sub procedures |
| __________________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules ? |
| A. Cohesion B. Coupling C. None of the mentioned D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling ? |
| A. Control Coupling B. Stamp Coupling C. External Coupling D. Content Coupling |
| Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion ? |
| A. Functional Cohesion B. Temporal Cohesion C. Functional Cohesion D. Sequential Cohesion |
| In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another ? |
| A. Control Coupling B. Stamp Coupling C. External Coupling D. Content Coupling |
| Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ? |
| A. Object oriented analysis B. Object oriented design C. Structured approach D. Both Object oriented analysis and design |
| If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited ? |
| A. Functional Cohesion B. Temporal Cohesion C. Functional Cohesion D. Sequential Cohesion |
| Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion ? |
| A. Logical Cohesion B. Temporal Cohesion C. Functional Cohesion D. Coincidental Cohesion |
| Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design ? |
| A. It consists of module definitions B. Modules represent data abstraction C. Modules support functional abstraction D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ? |
| A. A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle B. Functions represent some activity C. Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD D. All of the mentioned |
| Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in_______________? |
| A. SDD B. SRS C. All of the mentioned D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ? |
| A. Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD) B. Maintains the data dictionary C. Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not D. It complies with the available system |
| Structured Analysis is based on the principles of___________________? |
| A. Top-down decomposition approach B. Divide and conquer principle C. Graphical representation of results using DFDs D. All of the mentioned |
| In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by ____________________? |
| A. Circle B. Arrow C. Rectangle D. Triangle |
| What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle ? |
| A. Transform B. Data Store C. Function D. None of the mentioned |
| SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies ? |
| A. Constantine and Yourdon methodology B. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology C. Gane and Sarson methodology D. All of the mentioned |
| To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming language is the purpose of_______________? |
| A. Structured Analysis (SA) B. Structured Design (SD) C. Detailed Design (DD) D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ? |
| A. Functional decomposition B. Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model C. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure D. All of the mentioned |
| The context diagram is also known as __________________? |
| A. Level-0 DFD B. Level-1 DFD C. Level-2 DFD D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool ? |
| A. Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD) B. Maintaining the data dictionary C. Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not D. All of the mentioned |
| A directed arc or line in DFD represents_________________? |
| A. Data Store B. Data Process C. Data Flow D. All of the mentioned |
| Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a_______________? |
| A. Physical file B. Data Structure C. Logical file D. All of the mentioned |
| What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ? |
| A. Object B. Class C. Super Class D. Sub Class |
| Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD. is true ? |
| A. OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain B. OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements C. All of the mentioned D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures ? |
| A. operations that manipulate data in some way B. operations that perform a computation C. operations that check for syntax errors D. operations that monitor an object for the occurrence of a controlling event |
| A design description in OOD includes___________________? |
| A. Protocol Description B. Implementation Description C. Type Description D. both Protocol and Implementation Description |
| A design description of an object is known as a class__________________? |
| A. instance B. object C. case D. both instance and object |
| Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “micro development process” and a “macro development process.” ? |
| A. Booch method B. Rumbaugh method C. Wirfs-Brock method D. Coad and Yourdon method |
| Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects ? |
| A. PACKAGE B. PROC C. PRIVATE D. None of the mentioned |
| Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as _____________________? |
| A. HTML B. XML C. UML D. SGML |
| How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid ? |
| A. three B. four C. five D. one |
| Objects are executed _____________________? |
| A. sequentially B. in Parallel C. sequentially & Parallel D. none of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name ? |
| A. Aggregation B. Polymorphism C. Inheritance D. All of the mentioned |
| How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages ? |
| A. Inheritance B. Polymorphism C. Encapsulation D. Abstract Classes |
| Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ? |
| A. Easier maintenance B. Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities C. Objects are potentially reusable components D. None of the mentioned |
| Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as_________________? |
| A. Active Object B. Passive Object C. Multiple instance D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ? |
| A. Number of user Input B. Number of user Inquiries C. Number of external Interfaces D. Number of errors |
| Which of the following is the task of project indicators ? |
| A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project B. track potential risk C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk D. none of the mentioned |
| The intent of project metrics is_____________________? |
| A. minimization of development schedule B. for strategic purposes C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis |
| Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on ______________________? |
| A. E – errors found before software delivery B. D – defects found after delivery to user C. Both E and D D. Varies with project |
| In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _____________________? |
| A. number of Functions B. number of user inputs C. number of lines of code D. amount of memory usage |
| A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as_________________? |
| A. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency) B. Function points analysis C. Control Chart D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is an indirect measure of product ? |
| A. Quality B. Complexity C. Reliability D. All of the Mentioned |
| Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance ? |
| A. Market B. Product C. Technology D. People |
| Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process ? |
| A. Efficiency B. Cost C. Effort Applied D. All of the mentioned |
| Usability can be measured in terms of_________________? |
| A. Intellectual skill to learn the system B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage C. Net increase in productivity D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two or more web pages ? |
| A. Number of Static Content Objects B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects C. Web Page Similarity D. Number of Internal Page Links |
| Link based measures rely on _____________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages? |
| A. Embedded B. Hyperlink C. Dynamic D. All of the mentioned |
| Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about____________ for a web page that is to be built? |
| A. size B. complexity C. effort D. all of the mentioned |
| Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ? |
| A. Word Token B. Word Count C. Word Size D. Word Length |
| How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ? |
| A. Directly B. Indirectly C. No relation D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ? |
| A. Content based B. Link based C. Usage based D. Traffic based |
| Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of______________________? |
| A. Analysis Model B. Testing C. Design Model D. Source Code |
| Function Point Computation is given by the formula___________________? |
| A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) |
| Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here ? |
| A. “fan check-out” of module i B. “fan check-in” of module i C. “fan in” of module i D. “fan out” of module i |
| SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules______________? |
| A. in the current release B. in the current release that have been changed C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release D. none of the mentioned |
| Architectural Design Metrics are ______________ in nature ? |
| A. Black Box B. White Box C. Gray Box D. Green Box |
| How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ? |
| A. three B. four C. five D. six |
| Which of the following is not a metric for design model ? |
| A. Interface design metrics B. Component-level metrics C. Architectural metrics D. Complexity metrics |
| Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ? |
| A. Number of Static Content Objects B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects C. Number of Inherited Objects D. Word Count |
| Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by_______________? |
| A. Booch B. Boehm C. Albrecht D. Jacobson |
| SMI stands for_______________? |
| A. Software Mature Indicator B. Software Maturity Index C. Software Mature Index D. Software Maturity Indicator |
| The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as_________________? |
| A. Reliability B. Usability C. Efficiency D. Functionality |
| Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software_________________?0 |
| A. stated needs B. is easy to use C. makes optimal use of system resources D. none of the mentioned |
| Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ? |
| A. Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security) B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security) C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)] D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)] |
| Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of__________________? |
| A. Product Metrics B. Process Metrics C. Project Metrics D. All of the mentioned |
| The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio ? |
| A. maximum number of nodes at any level B. longest path from the root to a leaf C. number of modules D. lines of control |
| MTTC falls the the category of____________________? |
| A. correctness B. integrity C. maintainability D. all of the mentioned |
| Which of the following describes”Is-a-Relationship” ? |
| A. Aggregation B. Inheritance C. Dependency D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics ? |
| A. Complexity Metrics B. Cohesion Metrics C. Morphology Metrics D. Coupling Metrics |
| Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects ? |
| A. Objects are abstractions of real-world B. Objects can’t manage themselves C. Objects encapsulate state and representation information D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors ? |
| A. Flexibility B. Reliability C. Usability D. Integrity |
| Size and Complexity are a part of____________________? |
| A. Product Metrics B. Process Metrics C. Project Metrics D. All of the mentioned |
| Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a____________________? |
| A. measurement B. measure C. metric D. all of the mentioned |
| Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________? |
| A. Product Metrics B. Process Metrics C. Project Metrics D. All of the mentioned |
| Identify the sub-process of process improvement ___________________? |
| A. Process introduction B. Process analysis C. De-processification D. Process distribution |
| Which of the following is not project management goal ? |
| A. Keeping overall costs within budget B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team D. Avoiding customer complaints |
| Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system ? |
| A. Internship management B. Change management C. Version management D. System management |
| What describes the data and control to be processed ? |
| A. Planning process B. Software scope C. External hardware D. Project complexity |
| The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ___________________? |
| A. Project Management B. Manager life cycle C. Project Management Life Cycle D. All of the mentioned |
| Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for__________________? |
| A. team B. project C. customers D. project manager |
| Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates ? |
| A. Project size B. Planning process C. Project complexity D. Degree of structural uncertainty |
| Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project ? |
| A. travel and training costs B. hardware and software costs C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers) D. all of the mentioned |
| A 66.6% risk is considered as__________________? |
| A. very low B. low C. moderate D. high |
| Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management ? |
| A. Specification delays B. Product competition C. Testing D. Staff turnover |
| The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as___________________? |
| A. Association B. Decomposition C. Planning process D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate ? |
| A. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed B. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation C. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates D. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars |
| What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right ? |
| A. Automated estimation tools B. Empirical estimation models C. Decomposition techniques D. Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models |
| Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project ? |
| A. Hardware and software costs B. Effort costs C. Travel and training costs D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools ? |
| A. Predicting staffing levels B. Predicting software cost C. Predicting software schedules D. Predicting clients demands |
| What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software ? |
| A. Function-related metrics B. Product-related metrics C. Size-related metrics D. None of the mentioned |
| The environment that supports the software project is called_______________________? |
| A. CLSS B. SEE C. FAST D. CBSE |
| CLSS stands for_____________________? |
| A. conveyor line sorting system B. conveyor line sorting software C. conveyor line sorting speed D. conveyor line sorting specification |
| A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called ? |
| A. JAD B. CLASS C. FAST D. None of the mentioned |
| A _______________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost ? |
| A. Algorithmic cost modelling B. Expert judgement C. Estimation by analogy D. Parkinson’s Law |
| Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost ? |
| A. Costs of networking and communications B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space C. Costs of lunch time food D. Costs of support staff |
| Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed ? |
| A. Algorithmic cost modelling B. Expert judgement C. Estimation by analogy D. Parkinson’s Law |
| Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available ? |
| A. CASE tools B. Pricing to win C. Parkinson’s Law D. Expert judgement |
| Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools ? |
| A. An application-composition model B. A post-architecture model C. A reuse model D. An early design model |
| Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established ? |
| A. An application-composition model B. A post-architecture model C. A reuse model D. An early design model |
| Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming ? |
| A. An application-composition model B. A post-architecture model C. A reuse model D. An early design model |
| Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II ? |
| A. Early design estimation model B. Application Composition estimation model C. Comprehensive cost estimation model D. Post architecture estimation model |
| Estimation of size for a project is dependent on___________________? |
| A. Cost B. Time C. Schedule D. None of the mentioned |
| Which one is not a size measure for software product ? |
| A. LOC B. Halstead’s program length C. Function Count D. Cyclomatic Complexity |
| What all has to be identified as per risk identification ? |
| A. Threats B. Vulnerabilities C. Consequences D. All of the mentioned |
| COCOMO-II was developed at _____________________? |
| A. University of Texas B. University of Southern California C. MIT D. IIT-Kanpur |
| COCOMO was developed initially by _____________________ ? |
| A. B.Beizer B. Rajiv Gupta C. B.W.Bohem D. Gregg Rothermal Read More Details about this Mcq |
| Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount ? |
| A. Early design stage model B. Post-architecture-stage model C. Application composition model D. All of the mentioned |
| Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established ? |
| A. Early design stage model B. Post-architecture-stage model C. Application composition model D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP ? |
| A. FP-Based Estimation B. Process-Based Estimation C. COCOMO D. Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO |
| Which one is not a risk management activity ? |
| A. Risk assessment B. Risk generation C. Risk control D. None of the mentioned |
| COCOMO stands for____________________? |
| A. Constructive cost model B. Comprehensive cost model C. Constructive cost estimation model D. Complete cost estimation model |
| What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss ? |
| A. Risk exposure B. Risk prioritization C. Risk analysis D. All of the mentioned |
| What threatens the viability of the software to be built ? |
| A. Known risks B. Business risks C. Project risks D. Technical risks |
| Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified ? |
| A. Business impact risks B. Process definition risks C. Product size risks D. Development environment risks |
| Which of the following is not a business risk ? |
| A. building an excellent product or system that no one really wants B. losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people C. lack of documented requirements or software scope D. losing budgetary or personnel commitment |
| What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced ? |
| A. Known risks B. Business risks C. Project risks D. Technical risks |
| Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan ? |
| A. Risk identification B. Performance risk C. Support risk D. Risk projection |
| Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace ? |
| A. Business impact risks B. Process definition risks C. Product size risks D. Development environment risks |
| Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”? |
| A. Staff turnover B. Technology change C. Management change D. Product competition |
| Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”? |
| A. Performance risk B. Cost risk C. Support risk D. Schedule risk |
| Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected ? |
| A. Product risk B. Project risk C. Business risk D. Programming risk |
| Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system ? |
| A. Managerial risks B. Technology risks C. Estimation risks D. Organizational risks |
| Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced ? |
| A. Avoidance strategies B. Minimization strategies C. Contingency plans D. All of the mentioned |
| Why is decomposition technique required ? |
| A. Software project estimation is a form of problem solving B. Developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex C. All of the mentioned D. None of the mentioned |
| Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain characteristics ? |
| A. Function point sizing B. Change sizing C. Standard component sizing D. Fuzzy logic sizing |
| How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model ? |
| A. Two B. Three C. Four D. No form exists |
| If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in__________________? |
| A. LOC B. FP C. LOC and FP D. None of the mentioned |
| The expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as a weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess) estimates given as___________________? |
| A. EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4 B. EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6 C. EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6 D. EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4 |
| If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as_______________? |
| A. LOC B. FP C. Fuzzy Logic D. LOC and FP |
| Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus ? |
| A. people B. product C. popularity D. process |
| A software ______________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established? |
| A. people B. product C. process D. none of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation ? |
| A. Empirical B. Heuristic C. Analytical D. Critical |
| Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait ? |
| A. Problem solving B. Managerial identity C. Influence and team building D. None of the mentioned |
| Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves ? |
| A. random paradigm B. open paradigm C. closed paradigm D. synchronous paradigm |
| Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members ? |
| A. random paradigm B. open paradigm C. closed paradigm D. synchronous paradigm |
| Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm ? |
| A. asynchronous paradigm B. open paradigm C. closed paradigm D. synchronous paradigm |
| Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use ? |
| A. End-users B. Client C. Project (technical) managers D. Senior managers |
| Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks ? |
| A. Controlled decentralized (CD) B. Democratic decentralized (DD) C. Controlled centralized (CC) D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams ? |
| A. The difficulty of the problem to be solved B. High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members C. The degree of sociability required for the project D. The rigidity of the delivery date |
| Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks ? |
| A. Software Macroscopic schedule B. Software Project scheduling C. Software Detailed schedule D. None of the mentioned |
| SPMP stands for__________________? |
| A. Software Project Manager’s Plan B. Software Project Management Plan C. Software Product Management Plan D. Software Product Manager’s Plan |
| Which software engineering team has no permanent leader ? |
| A. Controlled decentralized (CD) B. Democratic decentralized (DD) C. Controlled Centralized (CC) D. None of the mentioned Which of the following is a people-intensive activity ? |
| A. Problem solving B. Organization C. Motivation D. Project management |
| Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application ? |
| A. Practitioners B. Project managers C. Senior managers D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity ? |
| A. project control B. project management C. project planning D. project design |
| Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in____________________? |
| A. project delay B. poor quality work C. project failure D. all of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique ? |
| A. Formal approaches B. Formal, interpersonal procedures C. Informal, interpersonal procedures D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late ? |
| A. Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes B. Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance C. Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy? |
| A. Software people don’t understand their customers needs B. Changes are managed poorly C. Sponsorship is gained D. Users are resistant |
| Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project ? |
| A. Practitioners B. Project managers C. Senior managers D. None of the mentioned |
| PM-CMM stands for___________________? |
| A. people management capability maturity model B. process management capability maturity model C. product management capability maturity model D. project management capability maturity model |
| v Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers ? |
| A. Personnel Factor B. Product Factor C. Platform Factor D. Project Factor |
| Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition ? |
| A. External inputs B. External outputs C. External process D. External inquiries |
| Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem ? |
| A. Putnam B. Myers C. Boehm D. Putnam and Myers |
| A make-buy decision is based on whether________________? |
| A. The software may be purchased off-the-shelf B. “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software components should be used C. Customer-built software should be developed D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.” ? |
| A. Underestimated development time B. Organizational restructuring C. Requirements changes D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed ? |
| A. People risks B. Technology risks C. Estimation risks D. Organizational risks |
| Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.” ? |
| A. Technology change B. Product competition C. Requirements change D. None of the mentioned |
| Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a__________________? |
| A. Client B. Investor C. Production team D. Project manager |
| What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk ? |
| A. Risk monitoring B. Risk planning C. Risk analysis D. Risk identification |
| Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis ? |
| A. Problem decomposition B. Partitioning C. Problem elaboration D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new codeline from a version in an existing codeline” ? |
| A. Branching B. Merging C. Codeline D. Mainline |
| Which of the following is a part of system release ? |
| A. electronic and paper documentation describing the system B. packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release C. an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware D. all of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system ? |
| A. Version B. Codeline C. Baseline D. None of the mentioned |
| A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as ____________________? |
| A. System building B. Mainline C. Software Configuration Item(SCI) D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is a configuration item ? |
| A. Design & Test specification B. Source code C. Log information D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a build system feature ? |
| A. Minimal recompilation B. Documentation generation C. Storage management D. Reporting |
| Which of the following is not a Version management feature ? |
| A. Version and release identification B. Build script generation C. Project support D. Change history recording |
| Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems ? |
| A. Agile method B. Parallel compilation method C. Large systems method D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes ? |
| A. Change management B. Version management C. System building D. Release management |
| What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use ? |
| A. System building B. Release management C. Change management D. Version management |
| Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained? |
| A. Codeline B. Configuration control C. Version D. Workspace |
| The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in__________________? |
| A. ISO 9000 B. CMM C. CMMI D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools ? |
| A. Tracking of change proposals B. Storing versions of system components C. Tracking the releases of system versions to customers D. None of the mentioned |
| What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review ? |
| A. Software configuration audit B. Software configuration management C. Baseline D. None of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity ? |
| A. Configuration item identification B. Risk management C. Release management D. Branch management |
| Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system ? |
| A. System building B. Release management C. Change management D. Version management |
| What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process ? |
| A. Change control B. Version control C. SCIs D. None of the mentioned |
| Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change ? |
| A. Baselines B. Source code C. Data model D. None of the mentioned |
| What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project ? |
| A. 40-20-40 B. 50-20-30 C. 30-40-30 D. 50-30-20 |
| Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include __________________? |
| A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization B. A separate configuration management team for each project C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members D. All of the mentioned |
| Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process ? |
| A. computer programs B. documents that describe the computer programs C. data D. all of the mentioned |
| Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects ? |
| A. Size of the project B. Customers Complaints C. Project staff D. Mission criticality |
| A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as______________________? |
| A. BCWS B. EVA C. BAC D. CBSE |
| What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project ? |
| A. Degree of Rigor B. Adaptation criteria C. Task Set D. Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria |
| Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development ? |
| A. PERT B. CPM C. CMM D. Both PERT and CPM |
| What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope ? |
| A. Concept scoping B. Preliminary concept planning C. Technology risk assessment D. Customer reaction to the concept |
| Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as ________________? |
| A. Time Allocation B. Effort Validation C. Defined Milestone D. Effort Distribution |
| Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as_________________? |
| A. Compartmentalization B. Defined milestones C. Defined responsibilities D. Defined outcomes |
| What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project ? |
| A. Task set B. Degree of milestone C. Adaptation criteria D. All of the mentioned |
| A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by_________________? |
| A. Henry Gantt B. Barry Boehm C. Ivar Jacabson D. None of the mentioned |
| _________________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system ? |
| A. physical B. logical C. process D. all of the mentioned |
| Which is the limitation of high level language? |
| A. Lower efficiency B. Machine dependence C. Machine level coding D. None of the above |
| FTP best matches with which OSI layer ? |
| A. Physical B. Transport C. Datalink D. Application |
| Handshaking is a ? |
| A. Smooth running of a program. B. Context-free Language. C. A programming language with self-correcting codes. D. Synchronization between two communicating devices. |
| Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations and relating schemas? |
| A. DML(Data Manipulation Langauge) B. DDL(Data Definition Langauge) C. Query D. Relational Schema |
| A type of language in which the instruction are written in binary foam is called? |
| A. Machine language B. C++ C. C D. java |
| A language in which a program is written on the basic of object? |
| A. Machine language B. C++ C. Object-Oriented language D. All of these |
