Electrical Engineering MCQs for NTS FPSC Test Preparation

Electrical Engineering MCQs for NTS FPSC Test Preparation

All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Skilling.pk
All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Stamflay.com

The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________?
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________?
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________?
A. cracking and warping of bricks
B. loss of cohesion
C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks
D. none of the above
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia
The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________?
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying
The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________?
A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
D. none of the above
Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks
Pug mill is used for_______________?
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?
A. lime stone and alumina
B. silica and alkalies
C. alumina and iron
D. alkalies and magnesium
The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________?
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side
Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________?
A. it takes less time for burning
B. it gives more output of first class bricks
C. it has less initial cost
D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________?
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550
Quick lime is_______________?
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium oxide
C. calcium hydroxide
D. none of the above
Quick lime is (1) slow in setting (2) rapid in slacking (3) good in strength The correct answer is____________?
A. only (1)
B. only (2)
C. both (1) and (2)
D. both (2) and (3)
Glazing is used to make earthenware______________?
A. hard
B. soft
C. porous
D. impervious
Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________?
A. burning of lime stone
B. burning of kankar
C. adding water to quick lime
D. calcination of pure clay
The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________?
A. lime and silica
B. lime and alumina
C. silica and alumina
D. lime and iron
Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the_______________?
A. setting time of cement
B. soundness of cement
C. tensile strength of cement
D. compressive strength of cement
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than_____________?
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 600 minutes
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is____________?
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite
As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be_______________?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 10 hours
Study the following statements. (1) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (2) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing, (3) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (4) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar. The correct answer is______________?
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (1) and (2)
D. (3) and (4)
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________?
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water
The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is_________________?
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. all of the above
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________?
A. 50 mm
B. 70.6 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 150 mm
Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________?
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate
According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than________________?
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa
With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
D. first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases__________________?
A. bleeding
B. shrinkage
C. permeability
D. heat of hydration
The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________?
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm
After storage, the strength of cement________________?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. may increase or decrease
The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Gypsum consists of______________?
A. H2S and C02
B. CaS04 and H20
C. Lime and H20
D. C02 and calcium
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of___________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:6
Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is_______________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is______________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur
Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are_______________?
A. iron ore, coal and sulphur
B. iron ore, carbon and sulphur
C. iron ore, coal and lime stone
D. iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about_________________?
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2
The most commonly used retarder in cement is_________________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is_____________?
A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
B. to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
C. to render the concrete more water tight
D. to improve the workability of concrete mix
Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. mild steel
D. high carbon steel
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________?
A. 0.2 liter
B. 0.4 liter
C. 0.6 liter
D. 0.8 liter
In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as_______________?
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond
The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually______________?
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
D. none of the above
Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of______________________?
A. wood work
B. iron work
C. both wood work and iron work
D. none of the above
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
D. none of the above
Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is______________?
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is_______________?
A. less than 0.25
B. between 0.25 and 0.7
C. between 0.7 and 1.5
D. greater than 1.5
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________?
A. along the direction of bedding planes
B. at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
C. at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
D. perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
A queen closer is a______________?
A. brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
B. brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
C. brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
D. brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________?
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm
Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer
The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is____________?
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________?
A. single flemish bond
B. double flemish bond
C. English bond
D. zigzag bond
Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________?
A. half brick thick
B. one brick thick
C. one and a half bricks thick
D. two bricks thick
Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________?
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are_______________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more
The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than_____________?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to_________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4
Single flemish bond consists of___________________?
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to_________________?
A. increase the depth of foundation
B. drain the soil
C. compact the soil
D. replace the poor soi
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to______________?
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm
The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________?
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring
Depth or height of the arch is the________________?
A. perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
B. vertical distance between springing line and intrados
C. perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
D. none of the above
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________?
A. friction pile
B. sheet pile
C. batter pile
D. anchor pile
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_____________?
A. compacting the soil
B. draining the soil
C. increasing the depth of foundation
D. grouting
The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is_______________?
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.7 m
C. 0.9 m
D. 1.2 m
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as______________?
A. intrados
B. rise
C. spandril
D. extrados
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is_______________?
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch
The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as_____________________?
A. haunch
B. spandril
C. voussoirs
D. skewbacks
In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for________________?
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
D. none of the above
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is______________?
 A. pitched and sloping roof
B. flat roof
C. shell roof
D. none of the above
The lintels are preferred to arches because______________?
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above
The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is__________________?
A. mortise and tennon joint
B. oblique mortise and tennon joint
C. butt joint
D. mitred joint
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as_____________?
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof
The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called______________?
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter
Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for________________?
A. coastal regions
B. plain regions
C. covering large areas
D. all of the above
Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in________________?
A. two directions without break in the slope on each side
B. two directions with break in the slope on each side
C. four directions without break in the slope on each side
D. four directions with break in the slope on each side
The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as______________?
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of________________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
The function of cleats in a roof truss is______________?
A. to support the common rafter
B. to support purlins
C. to prevent the purlins from tilting
D. all of the above
Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of______________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
The function of king post in a king post roof truss is_______________?
A. to support the frame work of the roof
B. to receive the ends of principal rafter
C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward
D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________?
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
C. 60° and 10°
D. 40° and 25°
Sum of tread and rise must lie between_______________?
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm
The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to______________?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. no limit
Minimum width of landing should be_______________?
A. equal to width of stairs
B. half the width of stairs
C. twice the width of stairs
D. one fourth the width of stairs
The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as_________________?
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings
The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than________________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. no limit
The term string is used for______________?
A. the underside of a stair
B. outer projecting edge of a tread
C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
D. a vertical member between two treads
In a colar beam roof_______________?
A. there is no horizontal tie beam
B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________?
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is_________________?
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
D. none of the above
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has (1) high compressive strength (2) high tensile strength (3) low compressive strength (4) low tensile strength The correct answer is_________________?
A. (1) and (2)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (1)and(4)
Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in__________?
1. better workability
2. better resistance to freezing and thawing
3. lesser workability
4. less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is:
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1)and(4)
C. ((2)and (3)
D. (3)and (4)
The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________?
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic
The stopping sight distance depends upon_______________?
A. total reaction time of driver
B. speed of vehicle
C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above
Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is________________?
A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet
Camber in the road is provided for_______________?
A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
D. none of the above
On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal to______________?
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance
The shoulder provided along the road edge should be_______________?
A. rougher than the traffic lanes
B. smoother than the traffic lanes
C. of same colour as that of the pavement
D. of very low load bearing capacity
When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________?
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving
For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber is_______________?
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60
The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is______________?
A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey
B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey
Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming______________?
A. rectangular or block road pattern
B. radial or star and block road pattern
C. radial or star and circular road pattern
D. radial or star and grid road pattern
Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance is_______________?
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed
The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________?
A. overtaking sight distance
B. two times the overtaking sight distance
C. three times the overtaking sight distance
D. five times the overtaking sight distance
Select the correct statement______________?
A. Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population
B. Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km
C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway
D. Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while calculating the length of roads
Reaction time of a driver_______________?
A. increases with increase in speed
B. decreases with increase in speed
C. is same for all speeds
D. none of the above
If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two way traffic is_________________?
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m
If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be________________?
A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction
The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations is_____________?
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph
The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is_______________?
A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades
Stopping sight distance is always_______________?
A. less than overtaking sight distance
B. equal to overtaking sight distance
C. more than overtaking sight distance
D. none of the above
The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________?
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%
For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced by_____________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%
For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation increases with_______________?
A. increase in both speed and radius of curve
B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve
C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain terrain is_______________?
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber
On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure on the outer wheels will be_________________?
A. more than the pressure on inner wheels
B. less than the pressure on inner wheels
C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels
The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the pavement_______________?
A. is preferable in steep terrain
B. results in balancing the earthwork
C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
D. does not change the vertical alignment of road

 

Leave a Reply